This Act provides for a new regulatory framework which has the general purpose of making the use of internet services regulated by this Act safer for individuals in the United Kingdom.
imposes duties which, in broad terms, require providers of services regulated by this Act to identify, mitigate and manage the risks of harm (including risks which particularly affect individuals with a certain characteristic) from—
Part 3 imposes duties of care on providers of user-to-user services and search services and requires OFCOM to issue codes of practice about those duties.
Part 5 imposes duties on providers of internet services (including user-to-user services and search services) that publish certain pornographic content.
Part 6, which imposes requirements to pay fees to OFCOM, applies to providers of internet services to which the duties in Part 3, 4 or 5 apply (“regulated services”).
In this Act “user-to-user service” means an internet service by means of which content that is generated directly on the service by a user of the service, or uploaded to or shared on the service by a user of the service, may be encountered by another user, or other users, of the service.
Subsections (6) and (7) have effect to determine whether an internet service that—
is a user-to-user service or a search service for the purposes of this Act.
content mentioned in paragraph 1, 2 or 3 of Schedule 1 (emails, SMS and MMS messages, one-to-one live aural communications) and related identifying content;
content present on a part of the service in relation to which the conditions in paragraph 7(2) of Schedule 1 are met (internal business service conditions).
a service of a kind described in Schedule 2 (services combining user-generated content or search content not regulated by this Act with pornographic content that is regulated).
an internet service, other than a regulated user-to-user service or a regulated search service, that is within section 80(2) (including a service of a kind described in Schedule 2).
in the case of a user-to-user service, user-generated content present on the service or (if the service includes a search engine) search content of the service;
A regulated user-to-user service that includes a public search engine is referred to in this Act as a “combined service”.
“Public search engine” means a search engine other than one in relation to which the conditions in paragraph 7(2) of Schedule 1 (internal business service conditions) are met.
This Act does not apply in relation to a part of a Part 3 service if the conditions in paragraph 7(2) of Schedule 1 (internal business service conditions) are met in relation to that part.
content mentioned in paragraph 1, 2 or 3 of Schedule 1 (emails, SMS and MMS messages, one-to-one live aural communications) and related identifying content;
This Part imposes duties of care on providers of regulated user-to-user services and regulated search services and requires OFCOM to issue codes of practice relating to some of those duties.
Chapter 4 imposes duties on providers of regulated user-to-user services and regulated search services to assess whether a service is likely to be accessed by children.
Subsections (2) to (6) apply to determine which of the duties set out in this Chapter (and, in the case of combined services, Chapter 3) must be complied with by providers of regulated user-to-user services.
All providers of regulated user-to-user services that are likely to be accessed by children must comply with the following duties in relation to each such service which they provide—
if the service is not a Category 2A service and is not likely to be accessed by children, the duties set out in Chapter 3 referred to in section 24(2);
if the service is not a Category 2A service and is likely to be accessed by children, the duties set out in Chapter 3 referred to in section 24(2) and (4);
A duty set out in this Chapter which must be complied with in relation to a user-to-user service that includes regulated provider pornographic content does not extend to—
See Part 5 for the duties which relate to regulated provider pornographic content, and the meaning of that term.
in the case of a duty that is expressed to apply in relation to users of a service, the design, operation and use of the service as it affects United Kingdom users of the service.
A duty to take appropriate steps to keep an illegal content risk assessment up to date, including when OFCOM make any significant change to a risk profile that relates to services of the kind in question.
Before making any significant change to any aspect of a service’s design or operation, a duty to carry out a further suitable and sufficient illegal content risk assessment relating to the impacts of that proposed change.
An “illegal content risk assessment” of a service of a particular kind means an assessment of the following matters, taking into account the risk profile that relates to services of that kind—
the level of risk of individuals who are users of the service encountering the following by means of the service—
taking into account (in particular) algorithms used by the service, and how easily, quickly and widely content may be disseminated by means of the service;
the level of risk of harm to individuals presented by illegal content of different kinds or by the use of the service for the commission or facilitation of a priority offence;
the level of risk of functionalities of the service facilitating the presence or dissemination of illegal content or the use of the service for the commission or facilitation of a priority offence, identifying and assessing those functionalities that present higher levels of risk;
how the design and operation of the service (including the business model, governance, use of proactive technology, measures to promote users’ media literacy and safe use of the service, and other systems and processes) may reduce or increase the risks identified.
In this section references to risk profiles are to the risk profiles for the time being published under section 98 which relate to the risk of harm to individuals presented by illegal content.
This section sets out the duties about risk assessments which apply in relation to regulated user-to-user services that are likely to be accessed by children (in addition to the duties about risk assessments set out in section 9 and, in the case of services likely to be accessed by children which are Category 1 services, the duties about assessments set out in section 14).
A duty to take appropriate steps to keep a children’s risk assessment up to date, including when OFCOM make any significant change to a risk profile that relates to services of the kind in question.
Before making any significant change to any aspect of a service’s design or operation, a duty to carry out a further suitable and sufficient children’s risk assessment relating to the impacts of that proposed change.
Where a children’s risk assessment of a service identifies the presence of non-designated content that is harmful to children, a duty to notify OFCOM of—
A “children’s risk assessment” of a service of a particular kind means an assessment of the following matters, taking into account the risk profile that relates to services of that kind—
the level of risk of children who are users of the service encountering the following by means of the service—
giving separate consideration to children in different age groups, and taking into account (in particular) algorithms used by the service and how easily, quickly and widely content may be disseminated by means of the service;
the level of risk of harm to children presented by different kinds of content that is harmful to children, giving separate consideration to children in different age groups;
the level of risk of harm to children presented by content that is harmful to children which particularly affects individuals with a certain characteristic or members of a certain group;
the extent to which the design of the service, in particular its functionalities, affects the level of risk of harm that might be suffered by children, identifying and assessing those functionalities that present higher levels of risk, including functionalities—
the different ways in which the service is used, including functionalities or other features of the service that affect how much children use the service (for example a feature that enables content to play automatically), and the impact of such use on the level of risk of harm that might be suffered by children;
the nature, and severity, of the harm that might be suffered by children from the matters identified in accordance with paragraphs (b) to (f), giving separate consideration to children in different age groups;
how the design and operation of the service (including the business model, governance, use of proactive technology, measures to promote users’ media literacy and safe use of the service, and other systems and processes) may reduce or increase the risks identified.
In this section references to risk profiles are to the risk profiles for the time being published under section 98 which relate to the risk of harm to children presented by content that is harmful to children.
This section sets out the duties to protect children’s online safety which apply in relation to regulated user-to-user services that are likely to be accessed by children (as indicated by the headings).
all the findings of the most recent children’s risk assessment (including as to levels of risk and as to nature, and severity, of potential harm to children), and
So far as a duty set out in section 12 relates to non-designated content that is harmful to children, the duty is to be taken to extend only to addressing risks of harm from the kinds of such content that have been identified in the most recent children’s risk assessment (if any have been identified).
References in section 12(3)(b) and (9)(b) and (c) to children in age groups judged to be at risk of harm from content that is harmful to children are references to children in age groups judged to be at risk of such harm as assessed by the provider of a service in the most recent children’s risk assessment of the service.
The duties set out in section 12(3) and (9) are to be taken to extend only to content that is harmful to children where the risk of harm is presented by the nature of the content (rather than the fact of its dissemination).
For the purposes of subsection (5), a provider is only entitled to conclude that it is not possible for children to access a service, or a part of it, if age verification or age estimation is used on the service with the result that children are not normally able to access the service or that part of it.
This section sets out the duties about assessments related to adult user empowerment which apply in relation to Category 1 services (in addition to the duties about risk assessments set out in section 9 and, in the case of Category 1 services likely to be accessed by children, section 11).
Before making any significant change to any aspect of a service’s design or operation, a duty to carry out a further suitable and sufficient assessment for the purposes of section 15(2) relating to the impacts of that proposed change.
the likelihood of adult users of the service encountering, by means of the service, each kind of relevant content (with each kind separately assessed), taking into account (in particular) algorithms used by the service, and how easily, quickly and widely content may be disseminated by means of the service;
the likelihood of adult users with a certain characteristic or who are members of a certain group encountering relevant content which particularly affects them;
the likelihood of functionalities of the service facilitating the presence or dissemination of relevant content, identifying and assessing those functionalities more likely to do so;
how the design and operation of the service (including the business model, governance, use of proactive technology, measures to strengthen adult users’ control over their interaction with user-generated content, and other systems and processes) may reduce or increase the likelihood of adult users encountering relevant content.
In this section “relevant content” means content to which section 15(2) applies (content to which user empowerment duties set out in that provision apply).
A duty to include in a service, to the extent that it is proportionate to do so, features which adult users may use or apply if they wish to increase their control over content to which this subsection applies.
The features referred to in subsection (2) are those which, if used or applied by a user, result in the use by the service of systems or processes designed to effectively—
A duty to ensure that all features included in a service in compliance with the duty set out in subsection (2) (“control features”) are made available to all adult users and are easy to access.
A duty to operate a service using a system or process which seeks to ensure that all registered adult users are offered the earliest possible opportunity, in relation to each control feature included in the service, to take a step indicating to the provider that—
continues to apply in relation to a user and a control feature for so long as the user has not yet taken a step mentioned in that subsection in relation to the feature;
A duty to include clear and accessible provisions in the terms of service specifying which control features are offered and how users may take advantage of them.
A duty to summarise in the terms of service the findings of the most recent assessment of a service under section 14 (assessments related to the duty set out in subsection (2)).
The features referred to in subsection (9) are those which, if used or applied by a user, result in the use by the service of systems or processes designed to effectively—
The duty set out in section 15(5) applies in relation to all registered adult users, not just those who begin to use a service after that duty begins to apply.
For the purposes of section 15 and this section, a person has the characteristic of gender reassignment if the person is proposing to undergo, is undergoing or has undergone a process (or part of a process) for the purpose of reassigning the person’s sex by changing physiological or other attributes of sex, and the reference to gender reassignment in subsection (4) is to be construed accordingly.
A duty to operate a service using proportionate systems and processes designed to ensure that the importance of the free expression of content of democratic importance is taken into account when making decisions about—
A duty to include provisions in the terms of service specifying the policies and processes that are designed to take account of the principle mentioned in subsection (2), including, in particular, how that principle is applied to decisions mentioned in that subsection.
In determining what is proportionate for the purposes of subsection (2), the size and capacity of the provider of a service, in particular, is relevant.
the content is or appears to be specifically intended to contribute to democratic political debate in the United Kingdom or a part or area of the United Kingdom.
In this section, the reference to “taking action” against a user is to giving a warning to a user, or suspending or banning a user from using a service, or in any way restricting a user’s ability to use a service.
where the proposed action relates to news publisher content that is also journalistic content, explains how the provider took the importance of the free expression of journalistic content into account when deciding on the proposed action, and
If a provider of a service reasonably considers that the provider would incur criminal or civil liability in relation to news publisher content present on the service if it were not taken down swiftly, the provider may take down that content without having taken the steps set out in subsection (3).
A provider of a service may also take down news publisher content present on the service without having taken the steps set out in subsection (3) if that content amounts to a relevant offence (see section 59 and also subsection (10) of this section).
Subject to subsection (8), if a provider takes action in relation to news publisher content or against a recognised news publisher without having taken the steps set out in subsection (3), a duty to take the steps set out in subsection (7).
to swiftly notify the recognised news publisher in question of the action taken, giving the provider’s justification for not having first taken the steps set out in subsection (3),
to notify the recognised news publisher of the decision and the reasons for it (addressing any reasons accompanying the request for reversal of the action).
If a recognised news publisher has been banned from using a service (and the ban is still in force), the provider of the service may take action in relation to news publisher content present on the service which was generated or originally published or broadcast by the recognised news publisher without complying with the duties set out in this section.
For the purposes of this section, a provider is not to be regarded as taking action in relation to news publisher content in the following circumstances—
a provider takes action in relation to content which is not news publisher content, that action affects related news publisher content, the grounds for the action only relate to the content which is not news publisher content, and it is not technically feasible for the action only to relate to the content which is not news publisher content;
Section 192 (providers’ judgements about the status of content) applies in relation to judgements by providers about whether news publisher content amounts to a relevant offence as it applies in relation to judgements about whether content is illegal content.
references to “taking action” against a person are to giving a warning to a person, or suspending or banning a person from using a service, or in any way restricting a person’s ability to use a service.
In this section references to “taking action” in relation to content are to—
and also include references to taking any other action in relation to content on the grounds that it is content of a kind which is the subject of a relevant term of service (but not otherwise).
A “relevant term of service” means a term of service which indicates to users (in whatever words) that the presence of a particular kind of content, from the time it is generated, uploaded or shared on the service, is not tolerated on the service or is tolerated but liable to result in the provider treating it in a way that makes it less likely that other users will encounter it.
A duty to operate a service using systems and processes that allow users and affected persons to easily report content which they consider to be content of a kind specified below (with the duty extending to different kinds of content depending on the kind of service, as indicated by the headings).
The duty in section 20(2) includes a duty to operate a service using systems and processes that allow users and affected persons to easily make an intimate image content report to the provider.
The duty in subsection (2) includes a duty to operate an expedited complaints procedure in relation to complaints within subsection (4)(a), (b)(i) or (b)(ii) that—
A duty to include in the terms of service provisions which are easily accessible (including to children) specifying the policies and processes that govern the handling and resolution of complaints of a relevant kind.
This section sets out the duties about freedom of expression and privacy which apply in relation to regulated user-to-user services (as indicated by the headings).
All providers of regulated search services that are likely to be accessed by children must comply with the following duties in relation to each such service which they provide—
All providers of regulated search services that are Category 2A services must comply with the following duties in relation to each such service which they provide—
in the case of a duty that is expressed to apply in relation to users of a service, the design, operation and use of the search engine as it affects United Kingdom users of the service.
a duty set out in this Chapter which requires a matter to be included in a publicly available statement may be satisfied by including the matter in the terms of service;
references in this Chapter (except in section 24) to the provider of a search service are to be read as references to the provider of the combined service.
A duty to take appropriate steps to keep an illegal content risk assessment up to date, including when OFCOM make any significant change to a risk profile that relates to services of the kind in question.
Before making any significant change to any aspect of a service’s design or operation, a duty to carry out a further suitable and sufficient illegal content risk assessment relating to the impacts of that proposed change.
An “illegal content risk assessment” of a service of a particular kind means an assessment of the following matters, taking into account the risk profile that relates to services of that kind—
the level of risk of individuals who are users of the service encountering search content of the following kinds—
taking into account (in particular) risks presented by algorithms used by the service, and the way that the service indexes, organises and presents search results;
the level of risk of functionalities of the service facilitating individuals encountering search content that is illegal content, identifying and assessing those functionalities that present higher levels of risk;
how the design and operation of the service (including the business model, governance, use of proactive technology, measures to promote users’ media literacy and safe use of the service, and other systems and processes) may reduce or increase the risks identified.
In this section references to risk profiles are to the risk profiles for the time being published under section 98 which relate to the risk of harm to individuals presented by illegal content.
This section sets out the duties about risk assessments which apply in relation to regulated search services that are likely to be accessed by children (in addition to the duties about risk assessments set out in section 26).
A duty to take appropriate steps to keep a children’s risk assessment up to date, including when OFCOM make any significant change to a risk profile that relates to services of the kind in question.
Before making any significant change to any aspect of a service’s design or operation, a duty to carry out a further suitable and sufficient children’s risk assessment relating to the impacts of that proposed change.
A “children’s risk assessment” of a service of a particular kind means an assessment of the following matters, taking into account the risk profile that relates to services of that kind—
the level of risk of children who are users of the service encountering search content of the following kinds—
giving separate consideration to children in different age groups, and taking into account (in particular) risks presented by algorithms used by the service and the way that the service indexes, organises and presents search results;
the level of risk of children who are users of the service encountering search content that is harmful to children which particularly affects individuals with a certain characteristic or members of a certain group;
the extent to which the design of the service, in particular its functionalities, affects the level of risk of harm that might be suffered by children, identifying and assessing those functionalities that present higher levels of risk, including a functionality that makes suggestions relating to users’ search requests (predictive search functionality);
the different ways in which the service is used, including functionalities or other features of the service that affect how much children use the service, and the impact of such use on the level of risk of harm that might be suffered by children;
the nature, and severity, of the harm that might be suffered by children from the matters identified in accordance with paragraphs (a) to (d), giving separate consideration to children in different age groups;
how the design and operation of the service (including the business model, governance, use of proactive technology, measures to promote users’ media literacy and safe use of the service, and other systems and processes) may reduce or increase the risks identified.
In this section references to risk profiles are to the risk profiles for the time being published under section 98 which relate to the risk of harm to children presented by content that is harmful to children.
This section sets out the duties to protect children’s online safety which apply in relation to regulated search services that are likely to be accessed by children (as indicated by the headings).
all the findings of the most recent children’s risk assessment (including as to levels of risk and as to nature, and severity, of potential harm to children), and
So far as a duty set out in section 29 relates to non-designated content that is harmful to children, the duty is to be taken to extend only to addressing risks of harm from the kinds of such content that have been identified in the most recent children’s risk assessment (if any have been identified).
The reference in section 29(3)(b) to children in age groups judged to be at risk of harm from content that is harmful to children is a reference to children in age groups judged to be at risk of such harm as assessed by the provider of a service in the most recent children’s risk assessment of the service.
The duties set out in section 29(3) are to be taken to extend only to content that is harmful to children where the risk of harm is presented by the nature of the content (rather than the fact of its dissemination).
For the purposes of subsection (5), a provider is only entitled to conclude that it is not possible for children to access a service, or a part of it, if age verification or age estimation is used on the service with the result that children are not normally able to access the service or that part of it.
A duty to operate a service using systems and processes that allow users and affected persons to easily report search content which they consider to be content of a kind specified below (with the duty extending to content that is harmful to children depending on the kind of service, as indicated by the headings).
The duty in section 31(2) includes a duty to operate a service using systems and processes that allow users and affected persons to easily make an intimate image content report to the provider.
The duty in subsection (2) includes a duty to operate an expedited complaints procedure in relation to complaints within subsection (4)(a), (b)(i) or (b)(ii) that—
A duty to make the policies and processes that govern the handling and resolution of complaints of a relevant kind publicly available and easily accessible (including to children).
When deciding on, and implementing, safety measures and policies, a duty to have particular regard to the importance of protecting the rights of users and interested persons to freedom of expression within the law.
When deciding on, and implementing, safety measures and policies, a duty to have particular regard to the importance of protecting users from a breach of any statutory provision or rule of law concerning privacy that is relevant to the use or operation of a search service (including, but not limited to, any such provision or rule concerning the processing of personal data).
if it is possible for children to access the service or a part of the service, to determine whether the child user condition is met in relation to the service or a part of the service.
A provider is only entitled to conclude that it is not possible for children to access a service, or a part of it, if age verification or age estimation is used on the service with the result that children are not normally able to access the service or that part of it.
the reference to a “significant” number includes a reference to a number which is significant in proportion to the total number of United Kingdom users of a service or (as the case may be) a part of a service;
whether the test in paragraph (a) of that subsection is met is to be based on evidence about who actually uses a service, rather than who the intended users of the service are.
references to a part of a service do not include any part of a service that is not, or is not included in, a user-to-user part of a service or a search engine.
Subsections (3) and (4) apply to a provider of a Part 3 service during any period when the service is not treated as likely to be accessed by children (see section 37).
in response to evidence about reduced effectiveness of age verification or age estimation that is used on the service as mentioned in section 35(2), or
For the purposes of this Part, a Part 3 service is to be treated as “likely to be accessed by children” in the following three cases (with the result that the duties set out in sections 11 and 12, or (as the case may be) sections 28 and 29, apply in relation to the service).
The first case is where a children’s access assessment carried out by the provider of the service concludes that—
This subsection is to be interpreted consistently with section 35.
the service is to be treated as likely to be accessed by children from the date by which the first children’s access assessment was required to have been completed (see Part 1 of Schedule 3), and
the service is to continue to be treated as likely to be accessed by children by reason of subsection (4) until such time as the provider completes the first children’s access assessment of the service.
The third case is where, following an investigation into a failure to comply with a duty set out in section 36, OFCOM determine that a service should be treated as likely to be accessed by children: see section 135(4) and (5).
In that case, the service is to be treated as likely to be accessed by children from the date of, or specified in, the confirmation decision given to the provider of the service (as the case may be: see section 135(5)).
A provider of a Category 1 service must include clear and accessible provisions in the terms of service giving information about any proactive technology used by the service for the purpose of compliance with the duty set out in subsection (1) (including the kind of technology, when it is used, and how it works).
In the case of a Category 1 service which is a combined service, the duties set out in this section do not extend to—
But if the service is also a Category 2A service, the duties set out in section 39 apply as well as the duties set out in this section.
fraudulent advertisements that may be encountered in search results of the service or, following a search request, as a result of subsequent interactions with internet services, or
where the provider is alerted by a person to the fact that such content may be so encountered, or becomes aware of that fact in any other way, swiftly ensure that individuals are no longer able to encounter such content in or via search results of the service.
A provider of a Category 2A service must include clear and accessible provisions in a publicly available statement giving information about any proactive technology used by the service for the purpose of compliance with the duty set out in subsection (1) (including the kind of technology, when it is used, and how it works).
do not include references to encountering fraudulent advertisements as a result of any subsequent interactions with an internet service other than the search service.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 (encouraging or assisting) in relation to an offence specified in subsection (2), (3) or (4), or (in Scotland) inciting a person to commit such an offence.
An offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in subsection (2), (3) or (4), or (in Scotland) being involved art and part in the commission of such an offence.
OFCOM must prepare and issue a code of practice for providers of Part 3 services describing measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with duties set out in section 10 or 27 (illegal content) so far as relating to terrorism content or offences within Schedule 5 (terrorism offences).
OFCOM must prepare and issue a code of practice for providers of Part 3 services describing measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with duties set out in section 10 or 27 (illegal content) so far as relating to CSEA content or offences within Schedule 6 (child sexual exploitation and abuse offences).
OFCOM must prepare and issue one or more codes of practice for providers of Part 3 services describing measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with the relevant duties (except to the extent that measures for the purpose of compliance with such duties are described in a code of practice prepared under subsection (1) or (2)).
OFCOM must prepare and issue a code of practice for providers of Category 1 services and providers of Category 2A services describing measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with the duties set out in Chapter 5 (fraudulent advertising).
prepare a draft of a code of practice under subsection (1), (2), (3) or (4) as a replacement for a code of practice previously issued under the subsection in question;
persons who appear to OFCOM to represent the interests of persons who have suffered harm as a result of matters to which the code of practice is relevant,
In the course of preparing a draft of a code of practice or amendments to which this subsection applies, OFCOM must also consult persons whom OFCOM consider to have expertise in the enforcement of the criminal law and the protection of national security that is relevant to online safety matters.
a code of practice under subsection (3) that describes measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with duties set out in section 10 or 27 (illegal content),
amendments of a code of practice under subsection (3), if and to the extent that those amendments relate to measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with duties set out in section 10 or 27, and
provision about the measures that may be described in codes of practice (including, in particular, constraints on the recommendation of the use of proactive technology), and
Unless the Secretary of State intends to give a direction to OFCOM under section 44(1), (2) or (3) in relation to the draft, the Secretary of State must, as soon as reasonably practicable, lay the draft before Parliament.
“The 40-day period” is the period of 40 days beginning with the day on which the draft is laid before Parliament (or, if it is not laid before each House of Parliament on the same day, the later of the days on which it is laid).
In calculating the 40-day period, no account is to be taken of any period during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
Subsections (1) to (6) apply in relation to a draft of amendments of a code of practice prepared under section 41 as they apply in relation to a draft of a code of practice prepared under that section.
For the purposes of paragraphs (c) to (f) of subsection (9) a draft of a code of practice is a draft of the first code of practice relating to a duty if—
OFCOM must submit a draft to which this subsection applies to the Secretary of State under subsection (1) within the period of 18 months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed.
If OFCOM consider that it is necessary to extend the period mentioned in subsection (11) in relation to a draft mentioned in any of paragraphs (a) to (f) of subsection (9), OFCOM may extend the period in relation to that draft by up to 12 months by making and publishing a statement.
But this is subject to subsection (15).
A statement under subsection (12) may be published at the same time as (or incorporate) a statement under section 194(3) (extension of time to prepare certain guidance).
a statement has previously been made under subsection (12) (whether in relation to a draft mentioned in the same or a different paragraph of subsection (9)), or
The Secretary of State may direct OFCOM to modify a draft of a code of practice submitted under section 43(1) if the Secretary of State believes that modifications are required for the purpose of securing compliance with an international obligation of the United Kingdom.
The Secretary of State may direct OFCOM to modify a draft of a code of practice, other than a terrorism or CSEA code of practice, submitted under section 43(1) if the Secretary of State believes that modifications are required for exceptional reasons relating to—
The Secretary of State may direct OFCOM to modify a draft of a terrorism or CSEA code of practice submitted under section 43(1) if the Secretary of State believes that modifications are required—
But if a draft of a terrorism or CSEA code of practice is submitted under section 43(1) following a review under section 47(2), the Secretary of State may only direct OFCOM to modify the draft if the Secretary of State believes that modifications are required for reasons of national security or public safety.
If, following a review of a terrorism or CSEA code of practice under section 47(2), OFCOM submit a statement to the Secretary of State under section 47(3)(b) (“OFCOM’s review statement”), the Secretary of State may direct OFCOM to modify the code of practice if the Secretary of State believes that modifications are required for reasons of national security or public safety.
may not require OFCOM to include in a code of practice provision about a particular measure recommended to be taken or used by providers of Part 3 services,
must set out the Secretary of State’s reasons for requiring modifications, except in a case where the Secretary of State considers that doing so would be against the interests of national security, public safety or relations with the government of a country outside the United Kingdom, and
If the Secretary of State considers that publishing and laying before Parliament a direction given under this section would be against the interests of national security, public safety or relations with the government of a country outside the United Kingdom—
Such further directions may only be given for the reasons set out in subsection (1), (2), (3), (4) or (5) (as the case may be), and subsections (7) to (9) apply again in relation to such further directions.
When the Secretary of State is satisfied that no further modifications to the draft are required, the Secretary of State must, as soon as reasonably practicable, lay before Parliament—
Before laying OFCOM’s review statement before Parliament, the Secretary of State may, with OFCOM’s agreement, remove or obscure information in the statement (whether by redaction or otherwise) in order to prevent the disclosure of matters that the Secretary of State considers would be against the interests of national security, public safety or relations with the government of a country outside the United Kingdom.
This section applies in relation to a draft of amendments of a code of practice submitted under section 43(1) as it applies in relation to a draft of a code of practice submitted under that provision.
a code of practice in the form of the draft laid before Parliament must not be issued by OFCOM unless the draft has been approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament;
This section applies in relation to a draft of amendments of a code of practice laid before Parliament under section 44(12) as it applies in relation to a draft of a code of practice laid under that provision.
Where amendments of a code of practice are issued under either of those sections, OFCOM must publish the amended code of practice within the period of three days beginning with the day on which the amendments are issued.
The Secretary of State may require OFCOM to review a terrorism or CSEA code of practice published under section 46 if the Secretary of State considers a review to be necessary for reasons of national security or public safety (and the Secretary of State must notify OFCOM whether the reasons fall into the category of national security or public safety).
if OFCOM consider that changes are required, they must prepare a draft of amendments to the code of practice or a draft of a replacement code of practice under section 41, or
OFCOM must publish the statement as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of the period mentioned in subsection (4)(b), making it clear which code of practice the statement relates to.
In advance of publication, the Secretary of State may make representations to OFCOM about the desirability of removing or obscuring information in the statement (whether by redaction or otherwise) in order to prevent the disclosure of matters that the Secretary of State considers would be against the interests of national security, public safety or relations with the government of a country outside the United Kingdom (and see also section 116(3)).
Amendments of a code of practice issued under this section come into force at the end of the period of 21 days beginning with the day on which the amendments are issued.
Section 46(2) applies in relation to amendments of a code of practice issued under this section as it applies in relation to amendments of a code of practice issued under section 43 or 45.
A failure by a provider of a Part 3 service to act in accordance with a provision of a code of practice does not of itself make the provider liable to legal proceedings in a court or tribunal.
In any proceedings in a court or tribunal, the court or tribunal must take into account a provision of a code of practice in determining a question arising in the proceedings if—
OFCOM must take into account a provision of a code of practice in determining a question arising in connection with their exercise of any relevant function if—
A duty mentioned in subsection (3) applies to providers of Part 3 services from the day on which a code of practice prepared under section 41(3) that is the first code of practice relating to that duty comes into force.
The duties set out in sections 10 and 27, so far as relating to terrorism content or offences within Schedule 5 (terrorism offences), apply to providers of Part 3 services from the day on which the first code of practice prepared under section 41(1) comes into force.
The duties set out in sections 10 and 27, so far as relating to CSEA content or offences within Schedule 6 (child sexual exploitation and abuse offences), apply to providers of Part 3 services from the day on which the first code of practice prepared under section 41(2) comes into force.
The duties set out in Chapter 5 (fraudulent advertising) apply to providers of a Category 1 service and providers of a Category 2A service (and to providers of a service which is both a Category 1 service and a Category 2A service) from the day on which the first code of practice prepared under section 41(4) comes into force.
In relation to the provider of a particular Part 3 service, references in this section to duties applying to providers of Part 3 services (or to providers of Category 1 services or Category 2A services) are to such duties as apply in relation to that service in accordance with sections 7 and 24 or (as the case may be) Chapter 5.
OFCOM must produce guidance for providers of Category 1 services to assist them in complying with their duties set out in section 14 (assessments related to the adult user empowerment duty set out in section 15(2)).
OFCOM must produce guidance for providers of Category 1 services to assist them in complying with their duties set out in section 18 (news publisher content).
OFCOM must produce guidance for providers of Part 3 services which contains examples of content or kinds of content that OFCOM consider to be, or consider not to be—
OFCOM must produce guidance for providers of Category 1 services which contains examples of content or kinds of content that OFCOM consider to be, or consider not to be, content to which section 15(2) applies (see section 16).
Before producing any guidance under this section (including revised or replacement guidance), OFCOM must consult such persons as they consider appropriate.
contain advice and examples of best practice for assessing risks of harm to women and girls from content and activity mentioned in subsection (1), and for reducing such risks;
refer to provisions contained in a code of practice under section 41 which are particularly relevant to the protection of women and girls from such content and activity.
the reference to content generated, uploaded or shared by a user includes content generated, uploaded or shared by means of software or an automated tool applied by the user;
“Comments and reviews on provider content”, in relation to a user-to-user service, means content present on the service consisting of comments or reviews relating to provider content (together with any further comments on such comments or reviews).
In subsection (6) “provider content” means content published on a service by the provider of the service or by a person acting on behalf of the provider, including where the publication of the content is effected or controlled by means of—
For the purposes of subsection (6), content that is user-generated content in relation to a service is not to be regarded as provider content in relation to that service.
“News publisher content”, in relation to a regulated user-to-user service, means any content present on the service that is within subsection (9) or (10).
reproduces in full an article or written item that was originally published by a recognised news publisher (and is not a screenshot or photograph of that article or item or of part of it),
is video or audio content that was originally published or broadcast by a recognised news publisher, and is not a clipped or edited form of such content (unless it is the recognised news publisher who has clipped or edited it), or
the holder of a licence under the Broadcasting Act 1990 or 1996 who publishes news-related material in connection with the broadcasting activities authorised under the licence, and
the name and address of any person who controls the entity (including, where such a person is an entity, the address of that person’s registered or principal office and that person’s registered number (if any)).
is designated by name under a power contained in regulations under section 1 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 that authorises the Secretary of State or the Treasury to designate persons for the purposes of the regulations or of any provisions of the regulations, or
is a designated person under any provision included in such regulations by virtue of section 13 of that Act (persons named by or under UN Security Council Resolutions).
news-related material is “subject to editorial control” if there is a person (whether or not the publisher of the material) who has editorial or equivalent responsibility for the material, including responsibility for how it is presented and the decision to publish it;
reproduces in full an article or written item that was originally published by a recognised news publisher (and is not a screenshot or photograph of that article or item or of part of it),
is video or audio content that was originally published or broadcast by a recognised news publisher, and is not a clipped or edited form of such content (unless it is the recognised news publisher who has clipped or edited it), or
“Search results”, in relation to a search service, means content presented to a user of the service by operation of the search engine in response to a search request made by the user.
“Search” means search by any means, including by input of text or images or by speech, and references to a search request are to be construed accordingly.
References to restricting users’ access to content, and related references, include any case where a provider takes or uses a measure which has the effect that—
the effect mentioned in subsection (2) results from the voluntary use or application by a user of features, functionalities or settings which a provider includes in a service (for example, features, functionalities or settings included in compliance with the duty set out in section 15(2) or (9) (user empowerment)), or
an order, rules or regulations made under an Act by the Secretary of State or other Minister of the Crown, including such an instrument made jointly with a devolved authority, or
“Intimate image content” means content that amounts to an offence under section 66B(1), (2) or (3) of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 (sharing intimate image of a person without consent).
For the purposes of determining whether content amounts to an offence, no account is to be taken of whether or not anything done in relation to the content takes place in any part of the United Kingdom.
References in subsection (3) to conduct of particular kinds are not to be taken to prevent content generated by a bot or other automated tool from being capable of amounting to an offence (see also section 192(7) (providers’ judgements about the status of content)).
Subsection (14) applies in relation to a regulated user-to-user service (but, in the case of a combined service, does not apply in relation to the search content of the service).
including material which, if it were present on the service, would be content within paragraph (a) (and this section is to be read with such modifications as may be necessary for the purpose of this paragraph).
content, not within paragraph (a) or (b), of a kind which presents a material risk of significant harm to an appreciable number of children in the United Kingdom.
the way in which a service featured in the content may be performed (for example, in the case of the performance of a service by a person not qualified to perform it).
Subsection (6) applies in relation to a regulated user-to-user service (but, in the case of a combined service, does not apply in relation to the search content of the service).
References to “primary priority content that is harmful to children”, “priority content that is harmful to children”, “content that is harmful to children” and “non-designated content that is harmful to children” are to be read as—
including material which, if it were present on the service, would be content within paragraph (a) (and this section and sections 61 and 62 are to be read with such modifications as may be necessary for the purpose of this paragraph).
Content which encourages, promotes or provides instructions for a challenge or stunt highly likely to result in serious injury to the person who does it or to someone else.
For the purposes of subsection (3), a person has the characteristic of gender reassignment if the person is proposing to undergo, is undergoing or has undergone a process (or part of a process) for the purpose of reassigning the person’s sex by changing physiological or other attributes of sex, and the reference to gender reassignment in subsection (2) is to be construed accordingly.
The report must include advice as to whether, in OFCOM’s opinion, it is appropriate to make changes to sections 61 and 62, specifying the changes that OFCOM recommend.
A provider of a Category 1 service must offer all adult users of the service the option to verify their identity (if identity verification is not required for access to the service).
In producing the guidance (including revised or replacement guidance), OFCOM must have particular regard to the desirability of ensuring that providers of Category 1 services offer users a form of identity verification likely to be available to vulnerable adult users.
A UK provider of a regulated user-to-user service must operate the service using systems and processes which secure (so far as possible) that the provider reports all detected and unreported CSEA content present on the service to the NCA.
A non-UK provider of a regulated user-to-user service must operate the service using systems and processes which secure (so far as possible) that the provider reports all detected and unreported UK-linked CSEA content present on the service to the NCA (and does not report to the NCA CSEA content which is not UK-linked).
A UK provider of a regulated search service must operate the service using systems and processes which secure (so far as possible) that the provider reports all detected and unreported CSEA content present on websites or databases capable of being searched by the search engine to the NCA.
A non-UK provider of a regulated search service must operate the service using systems and processes which secure (so far as possible) that the provider reports all detected and unreported UK-linked CSEA content present on websites or databases capable of being searched by the search engine to the NCA (and does not report to the NCA CSEA content which is not UK-linked).
If a person is the provider of more than one regulated user-to-user service or regulated search service, requirements under this section apply in relation to each such service.
The Secretary of State must make regulations in connection with the reports that are to be made to the NCA (including by non-UK providers) as required by section 66.
the records that providers must keep in relation to the reports, or the details that providers must retain as evidence that they have made the reports, and
impose restrictions or requirements in relation to the retention of such data (including how the data is to be secured or stored or who may access the data).
The power to require the retention of data associated with a report includes power to require the retention of—
“User data” here has the meaning given by section 231.
In section 16 of the Crime and Courts Act 2013 (interpretation of Part 1), in subsection (1), in the definition of “permitted purpose”, after paragraph (o) insert—
at the time the person provides it, the person knows that it is false in a material respect or is reckless as to whether it is false in a material respect.
CSEA content is “detected” by a provider when the provider becomes aware of the content, whether by means of the provider’s systems or processes or as a result of another person alerting the provider.
CSEA content is “UK-linked” if a provider has evidence of a link between the content and the United Kingdom, based on any of the following—
For the purposes of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) an offence is “related” to CSEA content if the content amounts to that offence (construed in accordance with section 59: see subsections (3), (11) and (12) of that section).
are to apply in relation to an entity which is not an undertaking (as defined in section 1161(1) of that Act) as they apply in relation to an undertaking, and
A provider of a Category 1 service must operate the service using proportionate systems and processes designed to ensure that the provider does not—
except in accordance with the terms of service.
Nothing in subsection (1) is to be read as preventing a provider from taking down content from a service or restricting users’ access to it, or suspending or banning a user, if such an action is taken—
taking down content from a service or restricting users’ access to it on the basis that a user has committed an offence in generating, uploading or sharing it on the service, or
The duty set out in subsection (1) extends only to the design, operation and use of a service in the United Kingdom, and references in this section to users are to United Kingdom users of a service.
OFCOM must produce guidance for providers of Category 1 services to assist them in complying with their duties set out in sections 71 and 72(3) to (7).
“Regulated user-generated content” has the same meaning as in Part 3 (see section 55), and references to such content are to content that is regulated user-generated content in relation to the service in question.
regulated user-generated content that constitutes, or is directly connected with content that constitutes, an offer to sell goods or to supply services,
regulated user-generated content that amounts to an offence under Chapter 1 of Part 4 of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act 2024 (construed in accordance with section 59: see subsections (3), (11) and (12) of that section), or
any other regulated user-generated content in relation to which an enforcement authority has functions under that Chapter (see section 231 of that Act).
Content of a particular kind is “relevant content” if—
References to relevant content are to content that is relevant content in relation to the service in question.
a term of service, other than a term of service mentioned in section 72(9), indicates (in whatever words) that the presence of content of that kind is prohibited on the service or that users’ access to content of that kind is restricted, and
an adult providing assistance in using the service to another adult who requires such assistance, where that other adult is a user of the service or is the subject of the content.
In determining what is proportionate for the purposes of sections 71 and 72, the size and capacity of the provider of a service is, in particular, relevant.
A provider of a relevant service must make it clear in the terms of service what their policy is about dealing with requests from parents of a deceased child for information about the child’s use of the service.
A provider of a relevant service must have a dedicated helpline or section of the service, or some similar means, by which parents can easily find out what they need to do to obtain information and updates in those circumstances, and the terms of service must provide details.
giving sufficient detail to enable child users and their parents to be reasonably certain about what kinds of information would be disclosed and how information would be disclosed.
A provider of a relevant service must respond in a timely manner to requests from parents of a deceased child for information about the child’s use of the service or for updates about the progress of such information requests.
allows for complaints to be made by parents of a deceased child who consider that the provider is not complying with a duty set out in any of subsections (1) to (4),
A provider of a relevant service must include in the terms of service provisions which are easily accessible specifying the policies and processes that govern the handling and resolution of such complaints.
The duties set out in this section extend only to the design, operation and use of a service in the United Kingdom, and references in this section to children are to children in the United Kingdom.
has parental responsibility for the child within the meaning of section 3 of the Children Act 1989 or Article 6 of the Children (Northern Ireland) Order 1995 (S.I. 1995/755 (N.I. 2)), or
Once a year, OFCOM must give every provider of a relevant service a notice which requires the provider to produce a report about the service (a “transparency report”).
In a notice which relates to a Category 1 service or a Category 2B service, OFCOM may only specify or describe user-to-user information.
But in the case of a service described in subsection (9), that subsection applies instead.
In a notice which relates to a combined service that is a Category 2A service, and is not also a Category 1 service or a Category 2B service, OFCOM may only specify or describe search engine information.
In a notice which relates to a combined service that is a Category 2A service, as well as being a Category 1 service or a Category 2B service, OFCOM may specify or describe user-to-user information or search engine information, or both those kinds of information.
how information from transparency reports produced by providers of relevant services under section 77 will be used to produce OFCOM’s transparency reports (see section 159); and
Before producing the guidance (including revised or replacement guidance), OFCOM must consult such of the following as they consider appropriate—
and OFCOM must also consult such other persons as OFCOM consider appropriate.
persons who appear to OFCOM to represent the interests of those with protected characteristics (within the meaning of Part 2 of the Equality Act 2010), and
persons whom OFCOM consider to have expertise in the enforcement of the criminal law and the protection of national security that is relevant to online safety matters,
“Provider pornographic content”, in relation to an internet service, means pornographic content that is published or displayed on the service by the provider of the service or by a person acting on behalf of the provider, including pornographic content published or displayed on the service by means of—
“Regulated provider pornographic content”, in relation to an internet service, means provider pornographic content other than content within subsection (4) or (5).
references to pornographic content that is only visible or audible to users as a result of interacting with content that is blurred, distorted or obscured (for example, by clicking on such content), but only where the pornographic content is present on the service,
references to pornographic content that is generated on the service by means of an automated tool or algorithm in response to a prompt by a user and is only visible or audible to that user (no matter for how short a time);
Pornographic content that is user-generated content in relation to an internet service is not to be regarded as provider pornographic content in relation to that service.
in the case of a Part 3 service, the conditions in paragraph 7(2) of Schedule 1 (internal business service conditions) are met in relation to that part;
in the case of an internet service other than a Part 3 service, the conditions in paragraph 1(2) of Schedule 9 (internal business service conditions) are met in relation to that part.
This Part does not apply in relation to a part of a regulated service if that part is an on-demand programme service or a non-UK on-demand programme service that is a Tier 1 service ....
In subsection (6), “on-demand programme service”, “non-UK on-demand programme service” and “Tier 1 service” have the same meaning as in the Communications Act (see sections 368A, 368AA and 368HA of that Act).
If a person is the provider of more than one internet service within subsection (2), the duties set out in section 81 apply in relation to each such service.
A duty to ensure, by the use of age verification or age estimation (or both), that children are not normally able to encounter content that is regulated provider pornographic content in relation to the service.
The age verification or age estimation must be of such a kind, and used in such a way, that it is highly effective at correctly determining whether or not a particular user is a child.
the way in which the provider, when deciding on the kinds of age verification or age estimation and how they should be used, has had regard to the importance of protecting United Kingdom users from a breach of any statutory provision or rule of law concerning privacy that is relevant to the use or operation of a regulated service (including, but not limited to, any such provision or rule concerning the processing of personal data).
A duty to summarise the written record in a publicly available statement, so far as the record concerns compliance with the duty set out in subsection (2), including details about which kinds of age verification or age estimation a provider is using and how they are used.
OFCOM must produce guidance for providers of internet services within section 80(2) to assist them in complying with their duties set out in section 81.
examples of kinds and uses of age verification and age estimation that are, or are not, highly effective at correctly determining whether or not a particular user is a child,
The guidance may elaborate on the following principles governing the use of age verification or age estimation for the purpose of compliance with the duty set out in section 81(2)—
the principle that age verification or age estimation should work effectively for all users regardless of their characteristics or whether they are members of a certain group;
if the Secretary of State agrees that it is appropriate, the consultation requirements set out in subsection (5) do not apply in relation to the proposed changes.
the previous charging year was not a fee-paying year in relation to the provider, and the charging year in question is a fee-paying year in relation to the provider, or
the previous charging year was a fee-paying year in relation to the provider, and the charging year in question is not a fee-paying year in relation to the provider.
the provider’s qualifying worldwide revenue for the qualifying period that relates to that charging year is equal to or greater than the threshold figure that has effect for that charging year (see section 86), and
A notification under subsection (1) in relation to a charging year must include details of all regulated services provided by the provider, and where it is a notification under subsection (1)(a) or (b)(i), it must also include—
Section 85 confers power on OFCOM to make regulations about the determination of a provider’s qualifying worldwide revenue, and the meaning of “qualifying period”, for the purposes of this Part.
in relation to the initial charging year, within four months of the date on which the first regulations under section 86 come into force (first threshold figure);
Exemptions, or revocations of exemptions, which are approved by the Secretary of State are to take effect from the beginning of a particular charging year.
Details of an exemption or revocation must be published by OFCOM at least six months before the beginning of the first charging year for which the exemption or revocation is to have effect.
For the purposes of this section and section 84, the “provider” of a regulated service, in relation to a charging year, includes a person who is the provider of the service for part of that year.
Where OFCOM require a provider of a regulated service to pay a fee in respect of a charging year, the fee is to be equal to the amount produced by a computation—
Where a person is the provider of a regulated service for part of a charging year only, OFCOM may refund all or part of a fee paid to OFCOM under this section by that provider in respect of that year.
OFCOM may by regulations also make provision specifying or describing evidence, documents or other information that providers must supply to OFCOM for the purposes of section 83 (see subsection (3)(b) of that section), including provision about the way in which providers must supply the evidence, documents or information.
Regulations under subsection (1)(a) may provide that the qualifying worldwide revenue of a provider of a regulated service (P) who is a member of a group during any part of a qualifying period is to include the qualifying worldwide revenue of any entity that—
make provision about circumstances in which amounts do, or do not, count as being referable (to any degree) to a regulated service for the purposes of the determination of the qualifying worldwide revenue of the provider of the service or of an entity that is a group undertaking in relation to the provider;
provide for cases or circumstances in which amounts that—
are to be brought into account in determining the qualifying worldwide revenue of the provider of the service or of an entity that is a group undertaking in relation to the provider.
Regulations which make provision of a kind mentioned in subsection (3) may include provision that, in the case of an entity that is a group undertaking in relation to a provider for part (not all) of a qualifying period, only amounts relating to the part of the qualifying period for which the entity was a group undertaking may be brought into account in determining the entity’s qualifying worldwide revenue.
OFCOM must carry out a consultation to inform the setting of the threshold figure for the purposes of sections 83 and 84, consulting such persons as they consider appropriate.
After the completion of the consultation, and having taken advice from OFCOM, the Secretary of State must make regulations specifying the threshold figure for those purposes.
If the Secretary of State considers that it may be appropriate to revise the threshold figure, the Secretary of State may request OFCOM to carry out a further consultation, and subsections (1) and (2) apply again.
Regulations specifying a threshold figure must be in force at least nine months before the beginning of the first charging year for which that figure is to have effect.
The Secretary of State must issue guidance to OFCOM about the principles to be included in a statement of principles that OFCOM propose to apply in determining fees payable under section 84 (see section 88).
OFCOM may not require a provider of a regulated service to pay a fee under section 84 unless there is in force a statement of the principles that OFCOM propose to apply in determining fees payable under that section.
Those principles must be such as appear to OFCOM to be likely to secure, on the basis of such estimates of the likely costs as it is practicable for them to make—
that on a year by year basis, the aggregate amount of the fees payable to OFCOM under section 84 is sufficient to meet, but does not exceed, the annual cost to OFCOM of the exercise of their online safety functions;
include details relating to the computation model used to calculate fees payable under section 84, including details of factors mentioned in subsection (2)(a)(ii) of that section (if any),
Any deficit or surplus shown (after applying this subsection for all previous years) by a statement under subsection (7) must be carried forward and taken into account in determining what is required to satisfy the requirement imposed by virtue of subsection (2)(a) in relation to the following year.
For the purposes of this section OFCOM’s costs of the exercise of their online safety functions during a charging year include the costs of preparations for the exercise of their online safety functions incurred during that year.
Schedule 10 makes provision about fees chargeable to providers of regulated services in connection with OFCOM’s recovery of costs incurred before the first day of the initial charging year.
Within the period of 40 days beginning with the day on which the statement is designated, or such longer period as the Secretary of State may allow, OFCOM must—
OFCOM must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of—
publish a review of what they have done during the period in question in consequence of the statement.
Schedule 11 contains provision about regulations specifying the threshold conditions that a Part 3 service must meet to be included in the relevant part of the register established by OFCOM under section 95, and associated provision about the publication of OFCOM’s advice.
In this Chapter, “Category 1 threshold conditions”, “Category 2A threshold conditions” and “Category 2B threshold conditions” have the same meaning as in Schedule 11 (see paragraph 1(1), (2) and (3) of that Schedule).
references to a service meeting the Category 1, Category 2A or Category 2B threshold conditions are to a service meeting those conditions in a way specified in regulations under paragraph 1 of Schedule 11 (see paragraph 1(4) of that Schedule);
a regulated user-to-user service meets the Category 1 threshold conditions if those conditions are met in relation to the user-to-user part of the service;
a regulated search service or a combined service meets the Category 2A threshold conditions if those conditions are met in relation to the search engine of the service;
a regulated user-to-user service meets the Category 2B threshold conditions if those conditions are met in relation to the user-to-user part of the service;
a regulated user-to-user service meets the conditions in section 97(2) if those conditions are met in relation to the user-to-user part of the service;
references to OFCOM assessing a service (to determine if it meets, or no longer meets, the relevant threshold conditions or the conditions in section 97(2)) are accordingly to be read as references to OFCOM assessing the relevant part (or parts) of a service.
OFCOM must assess each regulated user-to-user service which they consider is likely to meet the Category 1 threshold conditions, to determine whether the service does, or does not, meet those conditions;
OFCOM must assess each regulated search service and combined service which they consider is likely to meet the Category 2A threshold conditions, to determine whether the service does, or does not, meet those conditions;
OFCOM must assess each regulated user-to-user service which they consider is likely to meet the Category 2B threshold conditions, to determine whether the service does, or does not, meet those conditions.
If OFCOM consider that a service meets the relevant threshold conditions, they must add entries relating to that service to the relevant part of the register established under subsection (2).
if OFCOM consider that a regulated user-to-user service meets the Category 1 threshold conditions and the Category 2B threshold conditions (only), entries relating to that service are to be added to the part of the register established under subsection (2)(a) (only);
if OFCOM consider that a combined service meets the Category 1 threshold conditions, the Category 2A threshold conditions and the Category 2B threshold conditions, entries relating to that service are to be added to the parts of the register established under subsection (2)(a) and (b) (only).
If OFCOM consider that a combined service—
entries relating to that service are to be added to the part of the register established under subsection (2)(b) and to the part of the register established under subsection (2)(a) or (c) (whichever applies).
When assessing whether a Part 3 service does, or does not, meet the relevant threshold conditions, OFCOM must take such steps as are reasonably practicable to obtain or generate information or evidence for the purposes of the assessment.
a “Category 1 service” means a regulated user-to-user service for the time being included in the part of the register established under subsection (2)(a);
a “Category 2A service” means a regulated search service or a combined service for the time being included in the part of the register established under subsection (2)(b);
a “Category 2B service” means a regulated user-to-user service for the time being included in the part of the register established under subsection (2)(c).
If regulations are made under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 11 which amend or replace regulations previously made under that provision, OFCOM must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the date on which the amending or replacement regulations come into force—
assess each regulated user-to-user service which they consider is likely to meet the new Category 1 threshold conditions, to determine whether the service does, or does not, meet those conditions, and
If regulations are made under paragraph 1(2) of Schedule 11 which amend or replace regulations previously made under that provision, OFCOM must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the date on which the amending or replacement regulations come into force—
assess each regulated search service and combined service which they consider is likely to meet the new Category 2A threshold conditions, to determine whether the service does, or does not, meet those conditions, and
If regulations are made under paragraph 1(3) of Schedule 11 which amend or replace regulations previously made under that provision, OFCOM must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the date on which the amending or replacement regulations come into force—
assess each regulated user-to-user service which they consider is likely to meet the new Category 2B threshold conditions, to determine whether the service does, or does not, meet those conditions, and
At any other time, if OFCOM consider that a Part 3 service not included in a particular part of the register is likely to meet the threshold conditions relevant to that part, OFCOM must—
(subject to section 95(5)) if they consider that the service meets the relevant conditions, add entries relating to that service to that part of the register.
Nothing in subsection (3) or (4) requires OFCOM to assess a Category 1 service to determine whether the service meets the Category 2B threshold conditions.
A provider of a Part 3 service included in the register may at any time request OFCOM to remove entries relating to that service from the register, or from a particular part of the register.
If OFCOM are satisfied, on the basis of evidence submitted by a provider with such a request, that since the registration day there has been a change to the service or to regulations under paragraph 1 of Schedule 11 which appears likely to be relevant, OFCOM must—
OFCOM must remove entries relating to a Part 3 service from the relevant part of the register if, following an assessment of the service, they consider that it no longer meets the threshold conditions relevant to that part.
See section 167 for provision about appeals against a decision to include a service in the register (or in a particular part of the register), or not to remove a service from the register (or from a particular part of the register).
As soon as reasonably practicable after the first regulations under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 11 come into force (regulations specifying Category 1 threshold conditions), OFCOM must comply with subsections (2) and (3).
OFCOM must assess each regulated user-to-user service which does not meet the Category 1 threshold conditions and which they consider is likely to meet each of the following conditions, to determine whether the service does, or does not, meet them—
the first condition is that the number of United Kingdom users of the user-to-user part of the service is at least 75% of the figure specified in any of the Category 1 threshold conditions relating to number of users (calculating the number of users in accordance with the threshold condition in question);
if the regulations under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 11 specify that a Category 1 threshold condition relating to a functionality of the user-to-user part of the service must be met in combination with a Category 1 threshold condition relating to another characteristic of that part of the service or a factor relating to that part of the service (see paragraph 1(4) of Schedule 11), at least one of those combinations of conditions is met.
If the regulations under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 11 specify that a service meets the Category 1 threshold conditions if any one condition about number of users or functionality is met (as mentioned in paragraph 1(4)(a) of that Schedule)—
When assessing whether a service does, or does not, meet the conditions in subsection (2), OFCOM must take such steps as are reasonably practicable to obtain or generate information or evidence for the purposes of the assessment.
the risks of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by illegal content present on regulated user-to-user services and by the use of such services for the commission or facilitation of priority offences;
The risk assessments must, among other things, identify characteristics of different kinds of Part 3 services that are relevant to such risks of harm, and assess the impact of those kinds of characteristics on such risks.
in the case of the risk of harm mentioned in subsection (1)(c), may assess regulated user-to-user services and regulated search services separately or together.
The findings of each risk assessment are to be reflected, as soon as reasonably practicable after completion, in a register of risks of Part 3 services prepared and published by OFCOM.
As soon as reasonably practicable after completing their assessment of a risk of harm mentioned in a particular paragraph of subsection (1), OFCOM must prepare risk profiles for Part 3 services which relate to that risk of harm.
in the case of a risk assessment or risk profiles which relate only to regulated user-to-user services or to regulated search services, are to be read as references to the kind of service in question;
in the case of a risk assessment or risk profiles which relate only to the risk of harm mentioned in subsection (1)(a), are to be read as references to regulated user-to-user services;
in the case of a risk assessment or risk profiles which relate only to the risk of harm mentioned in subsection (1)(b), are to be read as references to regulated search services.
As soon as reasonably practicable after OFCOM have published the first risk profiles relating to the illegality risks, OFCOM must produce guidance to assist providers of regulated user-to-user services in complying with their duties to carry out illegal content risk assessments under section 9.
As soon as reasonably practicable after OFCOM have published the first risk profiles relating to the risk of harm from illegal content, OFCOM must produce guidance to assist providers of regulated search services in complying with their duties to carry out illegal content risk assessments under section 26.
As soon as reasonably practicable after OFCOM have published the first risk profiles relating to the risk of harm to children, OFCOM must produce guidance to assist providers of Part 3 services in complying with their duties to carry out children’s risk assessments under section 11 or 28.
OFCOM must revise guidance under this section from time to time in response to further risk assessments under section 98 or to revisions of the risk profiles.
If the risk profiles mentioned in subsection (3) relate to regulated user-to-user services only or to regulated search services only, that subsection is to be read as requiring the production of guidance relating only to regulated user-to-user services or to regulated search services, as the case may be.
OFCOM may by notice under this subsection require a person within subsection (5) to provide them with any information that they require for the purpose of exercising, or deciding whether to exercise, any of their online safety functions.
The power conferred by subsection (1) also includes power to require a person within any of paragraphs (a) to (d) of subsection (5) to take steps so that a person authorised by OFCOM is able to view remotely—
But the power conferred by subsection (1) must be exercised in a way that is proportionate to the use to which the information is to be put in the exercise of OFCOM’s functions.
a person who provides an ancillary service (within the meaning of section 144) in relation to a regulated service (see subsections (11) and (12) of that section),
a person who provides an access facility (within the meaning of section 146) in relation to a regulated service (see subsections (10) and (11) of that section),
a person not within any of paragraphs (a) to (e) who appears to OFCOM to have, or to be able to generate or obtain, information required by them as mentioned in subsection (1).
The information that may be required by OFCOM under subsection (1) includes, in particular, information that they require for any one or more of the following purposes—
the purpose of assessing whether to give a notice under section 121(1) relating to the development or sourcing of technology (see subsections (2)(b) and (3)(b) of that section);
the purpose of OFCOM’s advice to the Secretary of State about provision to be made by regulations under paragraph 1 of Schedule 11 (threshold conditions for categories of Part 3 services);
The reference in subsection (3) to a person authorised by OFCOM is to a person authorised by OFCOM in writing for the purposes of notices that impose requirements of a kind mentioned in that subsection, and such a person must produce evidence of their identity if requested to do so by a person in receipt of such a notice.
The power to give a notice conferred by subsection (1) does not include power to require processing of personal data that would contravene the data protection legislation (but in determining whether processing of personal data would do so, the duty imposed by the notice is to be taken into account).
The power conferred by subsection (1) does not include power to require the provision of information in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege, or (in Scotland) to confidentiality of communications, could be maintained in legal proceedings.
Subsection (C1) applies if a senior coroner (in England and Wales), a procurator fiscal (in Scotland) or a coroner (in Northern Ireland) (“the investigating authority”)—
if any regulated service has been brought to the attention of the investigating authority as being of interest in connection with the child’s death, the name of the service.
must give a notice to the provider of a service within subsection (E1) requiring the provider to ensure the retention of information relating to the use of the service by the child who has died, and
may give a notice to any other relevant person requiring the person to ensure the retention of information relating to the use of a service within subsection (E1) by that child.
The references in subsection (C1) to ensuring the retention of information relating to the child’s use of a service include taking all reasonable steps, without delay, to prevent the deletion of such information by the routine operation of systems or processes.
which a person might need to retain to enable the person to provide information in response to a notice under subsection (1) (if such a notice were given).
OFCOM must share with the investigating authority any information they receive in response to requirements mentioned in section 102(5A)(d) that are included in a notice under subsection (C1).
responding to a notice given by a senior coroner under paragraph 1(2) of Schedule 5 to the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 in connection with an investigation into the death of a child, or preparing a report under section 163 in connection with such an investigation;
responding to a request for information in connection with the investigation of a procurator fiscal into, or an inquiry held or to be held in relation to, the death of a child, or preparing a report under section 163 in connection with such an inquiry;
responding to a notice given by a coroner under section 17A(2) of the Coroners Act (Northern Ireland) 1959 (c. 15 (N.I.)) in connection with—
or preparing a report under section 163 in connection with such an investigation or inquest.
The power conferred by subsection (1) includes power to require a relevant person to provide OFCOM with information about the use of a regulated service by the child whose death is under investigation, including, in particular—
The power conferred by subsection (1) does not include power to require the provision of information in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege, or (in Scotland) to confidentiality of communications, could be maintained in legal proceedings.
The powers to give a notice conferred by this section do not include power to require processing of personal data that would contravene the data protection legislation (but in determining whether processing of personal data would do so, the duty imposed by the notice is to be taken into account).
An information notice requiring a person to take steps of a kind mentioned in section 100(3) must give the person at least seven days’ notice before the steps are required to be taken.
if the child to whom the notice relates used the service in question, to notify OFCOM by a specified date of steps taken to ensure the retention of information;
if the child did not use the service, or the person does not hold any information of the kind required, to notify OFCOM of that fact by a specified date, and
If OFCOM give an information notice to a person under section 101(C1), they may, in response to information received from the investigating authority, extend the period for which the person is required to retain information by a maximum period of six months.
by giving the person a notice varying the notice under section 101(C1) and stating the further period for which information must be retained and the reason for the extension;
require the person producing the document, or a person who is or was an officer of that person, or (in the case of a partnership) a person who is or was a partner, to give an explanation of it.
OFCOM must cancel an information notice under section 101(C1) by notice to the person to whom it was given if advised by the investigating authority that the information in question no longer needs to be retained.
In relation to information recorded otherwise than in a legible form, references in this section to producing a document are to producing a copy of the information—
OFCOM may include in the information notice a requirement that the provider must name, in their response to the notice, an individual who the provider considers to be a senior manager of the entity and who may reasonably be expected to be in a position to ensure compliance with the requirements of the notice.
include information about the consequences for such an individual of the entity’s failure to comply with the requirements of the notice (see section 110).
An entity’s “relevant activities” are activities relating to the entity’s compliance with the regulatory requirements imposed by this Act in connection with the regulated service to which the information notice in question relates.
assisting OFCOM in identifying and assessing a failure, or possible failure, by a provider of a regulated service to comply with a relevant requirement, or
But the powers in this section may be exercised for a purpose mentioned in subsection (1)(b) only where OFCOM consider that the provider in question may be at risk of failing to comply with a relevant requirement.
Section 122 requires OFCOM to exercise the power in subsection (4) for the purpose of assisting OFCOM in connection with a notice under section 121(1).
OFCOM may appoint a skilled person to provide them with a report about matters relevant to the purpose for which the powers under this section are exercised (“the relevant matters”), and, where OFCOM make such an appointment, they must notify the provider about the appointment and the relevant matters to be explored in the report.
The provider of the service is liable for the payment, directly to the skilled person, of the skilled person’s remuneration and expenses relating to the preparation of the report.
In Scotland, such an amount may be enforced in the same manner as an extract registered decree arbitral bearing a warrant for execution issued by the sheriff court of any sheriffdom in Scotland.
If OFCOM open an investigation into whether a provider of a regulated service has failed, or is failing, to comply with any requirement mentioned in subsection (2), the provider must co-operate fully with the investigation.
The power conferred by this section is exercisable by OFCOM for the purposes of an investigation that they are carrying out into the failure, or possible failure, of a provider of a regulated service to comply with a relevant requirement.
An individual is not required under this section to disclose information in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege, or (in Scotland) to confidentiality of communications, could be maintained in legal proceedings.
at the time the person provides it, the person knows that it is false in a material respect or is reckless as to whether it is false in a material respect.
provides information which is encrypted such that it is not possible for OFCOM to understand it, or produces a document which is encrypted such that it is not possible for OFCOM to understand the information it contains, and
the person suppresses, destroys or alters, or causes or permits the suppression, destruction or alteration of, any information required to be provided, or document required to be produced, by an information notice, and
the person’s intention was to prevent OFCOM from being provided with the information or document or (as the case may be) from being provided with it as it was before the alteration.
the person’s intention was to prevent the information being available, or (as the case may be) to prevent it being available in unaltered form, for the purposes of any official investigation into the death of the child to whom the notice relates.
The reference in subsection (5) to suppressing information or a document includes a reference to destroying the means of reproducing information recorded otherwise than in a legible form.
If a person is convicted of an offence under this section, the court may, on an application by the prosecutor, make an order requiring the person to comply with a requirement of an information notice within such period as may be specified by the order.
In this section “an individual named as a senior manager of an entity” means an individual who, as required by an information notice, is named as a senior manager of an entity in a response to that notice (see section 103).
It is a defence for an individual charged with an offence under subsection (2) to show that the individual was a senior manager within the meaning of section 103 for such a short time after the information notice in question was given that the individual could not reasonably have been expected to take steps to prevent that offence being committed.
It is a defence for an individual charged with an offence under subsection (4), (5) , (6) or (6A) to show that the individual was not a senior manager within the meaning of section 103 at the time at which the act constituting the offence occurred.
It is a defence for an individual charged with an offence under this section to show that the individual had no knowledge of being named as a senior manager in a response to the information notice in question.
at the time the person provides it, the person knows that it is false in a material respect or is reckless as to whether it is false in a material respect.
the person suppresses, destroys or alters, or causes or permits the suppression, destruction or alteration of, any information required to be provided, or document required to be produced, by a notice to which this subsection applies, and
the person’s intention was to prevent OFCOM from being provided with the information or document or (as the case may be) from being provided with it as it was before the alteration.
The reference in subsection (3) to suppressing information or a document includes a reference to destroying the means of reproducing information recorded otherwise than in a legible form.
If a person is convicted of an offence under this section, the court may, on an application by the prosecutor, make an order requiring the person, within such period as may be specified by the order, to comply with a requirement of a notice under paragraph 3 of Schedule 12 or an audit notice (as the case may be).
A person commits an offence if the person intentionally obstructs or delays a person in the exercise of the power conferred by section 102(7)(a) (copying a document etc).
at the time the person provides it, the person knows that it is false in a material respect or is reckless as to whether it is false in a material respect.
If a person is convicted of an offence under this section, the court may, on an application by the prosecutor, make an order requiring the person, within such period as may be specified by the order, to permit the making of a copy of a document, or to comply with a requirement under section 106 (as the case may be).
The power conferred by subsection (1) applies only in relation to an overseas regulator for the time being specified in regulations made by the Secretary of State.
Where information is disclosed to a person in reliance on subsection (1), the person may not—
except with OFCOM’s consent (which may be general or specific) or in accordance with an order of a court or tribunal.
would contravene the data protection legislation (but in determining whether a disclosure would do so, the power conferred by that subsection is to be taken into account), or
Section 18 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (restriction on disclosure of information for overseas purposes) has effect in relation to a disclosure authorised by subsection (1)(b) as it has effect in relation to a disclosure authorised by any of the provisions to which section 17 of that Act applies.
OFCOM may not disclose information received (directly or indirectly) from, or that relates to, an intelligence service unless the intelligence service consents to the disclosure.
If OFCOM have disclosed information described in subsection (1) to a person, the person must not further disclose the information unless the intelligence service consents to the disclosure.
If OFCOM would contravene subsection (1) by publishing in its entirety—
OFCOM must, before publication, remove or obscure the information which by reason of subsection (1) they must not disclose.
An explanation given, or information provided, by a person in response to a requirement imposed under or by virtue of section 100, 101 or 106 or paragraph 2(4)(e) or (f), 3(2), 4(2)(i) or (j) or 7(d) of Schedule 12, may, in criminal proceedings, only be used in evidence against that person—
If OFCOM consider that it is necessary and proportionate to do so, they may give a notice described in subsection (2), (3) or (4) relating to a regulated user-to-user service or a regulated search service to the provider of the service.
use accredited technology to identify CSEA content, whether communicated publicly or privately by means of the service, and to swiftly take down that content;
use accredited technology to prevent individuals from encountering CSEA content, whether communicated publicly or privately, by means of the service; or
use accredited technology to identify search content of the service that is terrorism content and to swiftly take measures designed to secure, so far as possible, that search content of the service no longer includes terrorism content identified by the technology;
use accredited technology to identify search content of the service that is CSEA content and to swiftly take measures designed to secure, so far as possible, that search content of the service no longer includes CSEA content identified by the technology; or
to do any or all of the things described in subsection (2)(a) in relation to the user-to-user part of the service, or to use best endeavours to develop or source technology as described in subsection (2)(b) for use on or in relation to that part of the service;
to do either or both of the things described in subsection (3)(a) in relation to the search engine of the service, or to use best endeavours to develop or source technology as described in subsection (3)(b) for use on or in relation to the search engine of the service;
to do any or all of the things described in subsection (2)(a) in relation to the user-to-user part of the service and either or both of the things described in subsection (3)(a) in relation to the search engine of the service; or
For the purposes of subsections (2) and (3), a requirement to use accredited technology may be complied with by the use of the technology alone or by means of the technology together with the use of human moderators.
A notice under subsection (1) that relates to a user-to-user service (or to the user-to-user part of a combined service) and requires the use of technology in relation to terrorism content must identify the content, or parts of the service that include content, that OFCOM consider is communicated publicly on that service (see section 232).
OFCOM may give a notice under section 121(1) to a provider only after obtaining a report from a skilled person appointed by OFCOM under section 104(4).
The purpose of the report is to assist OFCOM in deciding whether to give a notice under section 121(1), and to advise about the requirements that might be imposed by such a notice if it were to be given.
OFCOM may give a notice under section 121(1) to a provider relating to a service or part of a service only after giving a warning notice to the provider that they intend to give such a notice relating to that service or that part of it.
specify steps that OFCOM consider the provider needs to take in order to comply with the requirement described in section 121(2)(b) or (3)(b), or both those requirements (as the case may be),
A notice under section 121(1) that relates to both the user-to-user part of a combined service and the search engine of the service (as described in section 121(4)(c) or (d)) may be given to the provider of the service only if—
two separate warning notices have been given to the provider (one relating to the user-to-user part of the service and the other relating to the search engine), or
A notice under section 121(1) may not be given to a provider until the period allowed by the warning notice for the provider to make representations has expired.
This section specifies the matters which OFCOM must particularly consider in deciding whether it is necessary and proportionate to give a notice under section 121(1) relating to a Part 3 service to the provider of the service.
in the case of a notice relating to a user-to-user service (or to the user-to-user part of a combined service), the prevalence of relevant content on the service, and the extent of its dissemination by means of the service;
in the case of a notice relating to a search service (or to the search engine of a combined service), the prevalence of search content of the service that is relevant content;
the extent to which the use of the specified technology would or might result in interference with users’ right to freedom of expression within the law;
the level of risk of the use of the specified technology resulting in a breach of any statutory provision or rule of law concerning privacy that is relevant to the use or operation of the service (including, but not limited to, any such provision or rule concerning the processing of personal data);
in the case of a notice relating to a user-to-user service (or to the user-to-user part of a combined service), the extent to which the use of the specified technology would or might—
whether the use of any less intrusive measures than the specified technology would be likely to achieve a significant reduction in the amount of relevant content.
If a provider is already using accredited technology in relation to the service in question, a notice may require the provider to use it more effectively (specifying the ways in which that must be done).
A notice relating to a user-to-user service (or to the user-to-user part of a combined service) may also require a provider to operate an effective complaints procedure allowing for United Kingdom users to challenge the provider for taking down content which they have generated, uploaded or shared on the service.
A notice relating to a search service (or to the search engine of a combined service) may also require a provider to operate an effective complaints procedure allowing for an interested person (see section 227(7)) to challenge measures taken or in use by the provider that result in content relating to that interested person no longer appearing in search results of the service.
A notice given to a provider of a Part 3 service requiring the use of accredited technology is to be taken to require the provider to make such changes to the design or operation of the service as are necessary for the technology to be used effectively.
contain information about the consequences of not complying with the notice (including information about the further kinds of enforcement action that it would be open to OFCOM to take).
A notice requiring the use of accredited technology may impose requirements for a period of up to 36 months beginning with the last day of the period specified in the notice in accordance with subsection (6)(e).
specify steps that the provider is required to take (including steps relating to the use of a system or process) in order to comply with the requirement described in section 121(2)(b) or (3)(b), or both those requirements (as the case may be),
contain information about the consequences of not complying with the notice (including information about the further kinds of enforcement action that it would be open to OFCOM to take).
For the purposes of this Chapter, technology is “accredited” if it is accredited (by OFCOM or another person appointed by OFCOM) as meeting minimum standards of accuracy in the detection of terrorism content or CSEA content (as the case may be).
Those minimum standards of accuracy must be such standards as are for the time being approved and published by the Secretary of State, following advice from OFCOM.
The power conferred by section 125(11) includes power to revoke the notice if there are reasonable grounds for believing that the provider is failing to comply with it.
If a notice is revoked as mentioned in subsection (2), OFCOM may give the provider a further notice under section 121(1) if they consider that it is necessary and proportionate to do so (taking into account the matters mentioned in section 124).
Except where a notice under section 121(1) is revoked as mentioned in subsection (2), OFCOM must carry out a review of the provider’s compliance with the notice—
in the case of a notice relating to the development or sourcing of technology, before the last date by which any step specified in the notice is required to be taken.
Following the review, and after consultation with the provider, OFCOM may give the provider a further notice under section 121(1) if they consider that it is necessary and proportionate to do so (taking into account the matters mentioned in section 124).
In exercising their functions under this Chapter, or deciding whether to exercise them, OFCOM must have regard to the guidance for the time being published under this section.
technology which meets, or is in the process of development so as to meet, minimum standards of accuracy (see subsections (12) and (13) of section 125) for the purposes of this Chapter.
OFCOM may give a notice under this section (a “provisional notice of contravention”) relating to a regulated service to the provider of the service if they consider that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the provider has failed, or is failing, to comply with any enforceable requirement (see section 131) that applies in relation to the service.
the person has been given an information notice and OFCOM consider that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the person has failed, or is failing, to comply with either of the duties set out in section 102(8) (duties in relation to information notices), or
the person is required by a skilled person appointed under section 104 to give assistance to the skilled person, and OFCOM consider that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the person has failed, or is failing, to comply with the duty set out in subsection (7) of that section to give such assistance.
state whether OFCOM propose to impose a penalty of a single amount, a penalty calculated by reference to a daily rate, or both penalties (see section 137(1)),
indicate the amount of a penalty that OFCOM propose to impose, including (in relation to a penalty calculated by reference to a daily rate) the daily rate and how the penalty would be calculated,
in relation to a penalty calculated by reference to a daily rate, specify or describe the period for which OFCOM propose that the penalty should be payable, and
Where a provisional notice of contravention is given in respect of a continuing failure, the notice may be given in respect of any period during which the failure has continued, and must specify that period.
Where a provisional notice of contravention is given to a person in respect of a failure to comply with a duty or requirement (“the first notice”), a further provisional notice of contravention in respect of a failure to comply with that same duty or requirement may be given to the person only—
where a period was specified in the first notice in accordance with subsection (10), in respect of the continuation of the failure after the end of that period, or
This section applies if—
A duty or requirement to which the provisional notice of contravention relates is referred to in this section as a “notified requirement”.
OFCOM have given a provisional notice of contravention to a person in relation to a failure to comply with a duty or requirement (or with duties or requirements), and
If, after considering any representations and evidence, OFCOM decide not to give the person a notice under this section, they must inform the person of that fact.
If OFCOM are satisfied that the person has failed, or has been failing, to comply with a notified requirement, OFCOM may give the person a notice under this section (a “confirmation decision”) confirming that that is OFCOM’s opinion.
See sections 134 and 135 for further provision which a confirmation decision may include in cases of failure to comply with duties about risk assessments or children’s access assessments.
A confirmation decision may require the person to whom it is given to take such steps as OFCOM consider appropriate (including steps relating to the use of a system or process) for either or both of the following purposes—
But see section 136 in relation to OFCOM’s power to include in a confirmation decision requirements as described in subsection (1) relating to the use of proactive technology.
specify a reasonable period within which each of the steps specified in the decision must be taken or, if a step requires the use of a system or process, a reasonable period within which the system or process must begin to be used (but see subsection (5) in relation to information duties),
contain information about the consequences of not complying with the requirements included in the decision (including information about the further kinds of enforcement action that it would be open to OFCOM to take).
A confirmation decision that requires a person to take steps for the purpose of complying with an information duty may require the person to take those steps immediately.
If the condition in subsection (7) is met in relation to a requirement imposed by a confirmation decision which is of a kind described in subsection (1), OFCOM must designate the requirement as a “CSEA requirement” for the purposes of section 138(3) (offence of failure to comply with confirmation decision).
The condition referred to in subsection (6) is that the requirement is imposed (whether or not exclusively) in relation to either or both of the following—
a failure to comply with section 10(2)(b) in respect of an offence specified in Schedule 6 (CSEA offences), or in respect of priority offences which include such an offence.
If the condition in subsection (7B) is met in relation to a requirement imposed by a confirmation decision which is of a kind described in subsection (1), OFCOM must designate the requirement as an “intimate image content requirement” for the purposes of section 138(3A) (offence of failure to comply with confirmation decision).
A person to whom a confirmation decision is given has a duty to comply with requirements included in the decision which are of a kind described in subsection (1).
based on evidence resulting from OFCOM’s investigation into that failure, OFCOM have identified a risk of serious harm to individuals in the United Kingdom arising from a particular aspect of the service (“the identified risk”), and
if the identified risk relates to matters required to be covered by an illegal content risk assessment, may include a determination that the duty set out in section 10(2)(b) or (c) or 27(2) (as the case may be) applies as if an illegal content risk assessment carried out by the provider had identified that risk;
if the identified risk relates to matters required to be covered by a children’s risk assessment, may include a determination that the duty set out in section 12(2)(a) or 29(2)(a) (as the case may be) applies as if a children’s risk assessment carried out by the provider had identified that risk.
A determination as mentioned in subsection (2) ceases to have effect on the date on which the provider of the service complies with the risk assessment duty with which the provider had previously failed to comply (and accordingly, from that date the duty to which the determination relates applies without the modification mentioned in that subsection).
This section applies if OFCOM are satisfied that a provider of a Part 3 service has failed to comply with a duty set out in section 36 (duties about children’s access assessments).
If OFCOM include in a confirmation decision a requirement to take steps relating to the carrying out of a children’s access assessment of a service, they must require that assessment to be completed within three months of the date of the confirmation decision.
OFCOM may vary a confirmation decision which includes a requirement as mentioned in subsection (2) to extend the deadline for completion of a children’s access assessment.
Subsection (5) applies if, based on evidence that OFCOM have about a service resulting from their investigation into compliance with a duty set out in section 36, OFCOM consider that—
This section sets out what powers OFCOM have to include in a confirmation decision a requirement to take steps to use a kind, or one of the kinds, of proactive technology specified in the decision (a “proactive technology requirement”).
the decision is imposed for the purpose of complying with, or remedying the failure to comply with, the duty set out in section 81(2) (provider pornographic content).
The following provisions of this section set out constraints on OFCOM’s power to include a proactive technology requirement in a confirmation decision in any case not within subsection (2).
A proactive technology requirement may be imposed in a confirmation decision only for the purpose of complying with, or remedying the failure to comply with, any of the duties set out in—
Proactive technology may be required to be used on or in relation to any Part 3 service or any part of such a service, but if and to the extent that the technology operates (or may operate) by analysing content that is user-generated content in relation to the service, or metadata relating to such content, the technology may not be required to be used except to analyse—
Before imposing a proactive technology requirement in relation to a service in a confirmation decision, OFCOM must particularly consider the matters mentioned in subsection (8), so far as they are relevant.
the prevalence of relevant content on the service and the extent of its dissemination by means of the service, or (as the case may be) the prevalence of search content of the service that is relevant content;
the level of risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by relevant content present on the service, or (as the case may be) search content of the service that is relevant content, and the severity of that harm;
the extent to which the use of the kind of proactive technology specified in the decision would or might result in interference with users’ right to freedom of expression within the law;
the level of risk of the use of the kind of proactive technology specified in the decision resulting in a breach of any statutory provision or rule of law concerning privacy that is relevant to the use or operation of the service (including, but not limited to, any such provision or rule concerning the processing of personal data);
whether the use of any less intrusive measures than the proactive technology specified in the decision would be likely to result in compliance with, or would be likely to effectively remedy the failure to comply with, the duty in question.
A confirmation decision that imposes a proactive technology requirement on a provider may also impose requirements about review of the technology by the provider.
A confirmation decision relating to a service which requires the use of technology of a kind mentioned in subsection (6) must identify the content, or parts of the service that include content, that OFCOM consider is communicated publicly on that service (see section 232).
A confirmation decision may require the person to whom it is given to do either or both of the following, depending on what was proposed in the provisional notice of contravention (see paragraph 3 of Schedule 13)—
if the confirmation decision includes a requirement of the kind described in section 133(1)(a) in respect of a continuous failure to comply with a notified requirement, pay a daily rate penalty to OFCOM if that same failure continues after the compliance date.
Where a provisional notice of contravention is given in respect of a period of continuing failure to comply with a notified requirement, no more than one single penalty may be imposed by a confirmation decision in respect of the period of failure specified in the provisional notice of contravention.
contain information about the consequences of not paying the penalty (including information about the further kinds of enforcement action that it would be open to OFCOM to take).
The period specified under subsection (5)(e) for the payment of a single penalty must be at least 28 days beginning with the day on which the confirmation decision is given.
If a confirmation decision imposes a single penalty and a daily rate penalty, the information mentioned in subsection (5)(a), (b), (d) and (e) must be given in respect of each kind of penalty.
As well as containing the information mentioned in subsection (5), a confirmation decision that imposes a daily rate penalty in respect of a continuous failure to comply with a notified requirement must—
if the penalty is imposed in respect of a failure to comply with more than one notified requirement, the date on which the last of those requirements is complied with, or
A person to whom a confirmation decision is given commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, the person fails to comply with a requirement imposed by the decision which—
A person to whom a confirmation decision is given commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, the person fails to comply with a CSEA requirement imposed by the decision (see section 133(6) and (7)).
A person to whom a confirmation decision is given commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, the person fails to comply with an intimate image content requirement imposed by the decision (see section 133(7A) and (7B)).
OFCOM may give the person a penalty notice under this section in respect of the failure to comply with the confirmation decision, requiring the person to pay to OFCOM a penalty of a single amount in sterling determined by OFCOM.
notifying the person that they propose to give a penalty notice under this section, specifying the reasons for doing so and indicating the amount of the proposed penalty, and
contain information about the consequences of not paying the penalty (including information about the further kinds of enforcement action that it would be open to OFCOM to take).
OFCOM have given a notice under section 121(1) relating to a Part 3 service to the provider of that service (notices to deal with terrorism content and CSEA content), and
OFCOM may give the provider a penalty notice under this subsection requiring the provider to pay to OFCOM a penalty of an amount in sterling determined by OFCOM.
Nothing in this section is to be taken to prevent OFCOM from giving the provider a further notice under section 121(1) (see section 126), as well as giving a penalty notice under subsection (5).
the provider of a regulated service is liable to pay a fee to OFCOM under section 84 or Schedule 10 in respect of the current charging year (within the meaning of Part 6) or a previous charging year, and
OFCOM may give the provider a penalty notice under this subsection requiring the provider to pay to OFCOM a penalty of an amount in sterling determined by OFCOM.
A penalty notice under subsection (6) may require the payment of separate single amounts in respect of liabilities that relate to different charging years.
Nothing in this section affects OFCOM’s power to bring proceedings (whether before or after the imposition of a penalty by a notice under subsection (6)) for the recovery of the whole or part of an amount due to OFCOM under section 84 or Schedule 10.
state whether OFCOM propose that the penalty should consist of a single amount, an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, or a combination of the two,
indicate the amount of the proposed penalty, including (in relation to an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate) the daily rate and how the penalty would be calculated,
in relation to an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, specify or describe the period for which OFCOM propose that the amount should be payable,
state whether the penalty consists of a single amount, an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, or a combination of the two, and how it is calculated,
contain information about the consequences of not paying the penalty (including information about the further kinds of enforcement action that it would be open to OFCOM to take).
The period specified under subsection (3)(f)for the payment of a single amount must be at least 28 days beginning with the day on which the penalty notice is given.
Subsection (7) applies in relation to a penalty notice under section 140(5) or 141(6) that includes a requirement to pay an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate.
(in the case of a notice under section 140(5)) the date on which OFCOM are satisfied that the provider is complying with the notice under section 121(1), or (in the case of a notice under section 141(6)) the date on which the full amount of the fee (as specified in the penalty notice) has been paid to OFCOM, or
Schedule 13 contains provision about the amount of penalties that OFCOM may impose under this Chapter, and makes further provision about such penalties.
OFCOM may apply to the court for an order under this section (a “service restriction order”) in relation to a regulated service where they consider that—
A service restriction order is an order imposing requirements on one or more persons who provide an ancillary service (whether from within or outside the United Kingdom) in relation to a regulated service (see subsection (11)).
the provider has failed to comply with a requirement imposed by a confirmation decision that is of a kind described in section 133(1) relating to the failure;
the provider has failed to pay a penalty imposed by a confirmation decision relating to the failure (and the confirmation decision did not impose any requirements of a kind described in section 133(1));
the circumstances of the failure or the risks of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom are such that it is appropriate to make the application without having given a provisional notice of contravention, without having given a confirmation decision, or (having given a confirmation decision imposing requirements) without waiting to ascertain compliance with those requirements.
the provider of the Part 3 service has failed to comply with a notice under section 121(1) that relates to the service (notices to deal with terrorism content and CSEA content), and
contain evidence as to why OFCOM consider that the persons mentioned in paragraph (d) provide an ancillary service in relation to the relevant service, and specify any such ancillary service provided,
in the case of an application made without notice having been given to the non-compliant provider, or to the persons mentioned in paragraph (d), state why no notice has been given.
that it is appropriate to make the order for the purpose of preventing harm to individuals in the United Kingdom, and the order is proportionate to the risk of such harm,
in the case of an application made on the ground in subsection (3)(c)(iii) or (iv), that it is appropriate to make the order before a provisional notice of contravention or confirmation decision has been given, or before compliance with requirements imposed by a confirmation decision has been ascertained (as the case may be), and
if no notice of the application has been given to the non-compliant provider, or to the persons on whom requirements are being imposed, that it is appropriate to make the order without notice.
When considering whether to make a service restriction order in relation to the relevant service, and when considering what provision it should contain, the court must take into account (among other things) the rights and obligations of all relevant parties, including those of—
require such persons to take the steps specified in the order, or to put in place arrangements, that have the effect of withdrawing the ancillary service to the extent that it relates to the relevant service (or part of it), or preventing the ancillary service from promoting or displaying content that relates to the relevant service (or part of it) in any way,
include steps or arrangements that will or may require the termination of an agreement (whether or not made before the coming into force of this section), or the prohibition of the performance of such an agreement, and
are limited, so far as that is possible, to steps or arrangements relating to the operation of the relevant service as it affects United Kingdom users.
For the purposes of this section, a service is an “ancillary service” in relation to a regulated service if the service facilitates the provision of the regulated service (or part of it), whether directly or indirectly, or displays or promotes content relating to the regulated service (or to part of it).
OFCOM may apply to the court for an interim order under this section (an “interim service restriction order”) in relation to a regulated service where they consider that—
An interim service restriction order is an interim order imposing requirements on one or more persons who provide an ancillary service (whether from within or outside the United Kingdom) in relation to a regulated service (see subsection (9)).
it is likely that the provider of the regulated service is failing to comply with an enforceable requirement that applies in relation to the regulated service, and
the level of risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom relating to the likely failure, and the nature and severity of that harm, are such that it would not be appropriate to wait to establish the failure before applying for the order.
it is likely that the provider of the Part 3 service is failing to comply with a notice under section 121(1) that relates to the service (notices to deal with terrorism content and CSEA content), and
the level of risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom relating to the likely failure, and the nature and severity of that harm, are such that it would not be appropriate to wait to establish the failure before applying for the order.
contain evidence as to why OFCOM consider that the persons mentioned in paragraph (d) provide an ancillary service in relation to the relevant service, and specify any such ancillary service provided,
in the case of an application made without notice having been given to the non-compliant provider, or to the persons mentioned in paragraph (d), state why no notice has been given.
The court may make an interim service restriction order imposing requirements on a person in relation to the relevant service if the court is satisfied—
that the level of risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom relating to the likely failure mentioned in subsection (3)(a) or (4)(a) (whichever applies), and the nature and severity of that harm, are such that it is not appropriate to wait for the failure to be established before making the order, and
if no notice of the application has been given to the non-compliant provider, or to the persons on whom requirements are being imposed, that it is appropriate to make the order without notice.
the date on which the court makes a service restriction order under section 144 in relation to the relevant service that imposes requirements on the same persons on whom requirements are imposed by the interim order, or dismisses the application for such an order.
Subsections (7) to (10) of section 144 apply in relation to an interim service restriction order under this section as they apply in relation to a service restriction order under that section.
OFCOM may apply to the court for an order under this section (an “access restriction order”) in relation to a regulated service where they consider that—
a service restriction order under section 144 or an interim service restriction order under section 145 has been made in relation to the failure, and it was not sufficient to prevent significant harm arising to individuals in the United Kingdom as a result of the failure, or
the likely consequences of the failure are such that if a service restriction order or an interim service restriction order were to be made, it would be unlikely to be sufficient to prevent significant harm arising to individuals in the United Kingdom as a result of the failure,
An access restriction order is an order imposing requirements on one or more persons who provide an access facility (whether from within or outside the United Kingdom) in relation to a regulated service (see subsection (10)).
contain evidence as to why OFCOM consider that the persons mentioned in paragraph (d) provide an access facility in relation to the relevant service, and specify any such access facility provided,
in the case of an application made without notice having been given to the non-compliant provider, or to the persons mentioned in paragraph (d), state why no notice has been given.
that it is appropriate to make the order for the purpose of preventing significant harm to individuals in the United Kingdom, and the order is proportionate to the risk of such harm,
in the case of an application made on the ground in subsection (3)(c)(iii) or (iv) of section 144 (by virtue of subsection (1)(a)), that it is appropriate to make the order before a provisional notice of contravention or confirmation decision has been given, or before compliance with requirements imposed by a confirmation decision has been ascertained (as the case may be), and
if no notice of the application has been given to the non-compliant provider, or to the persons on whom requirements are being imposed, that it is appropriate to make the order without notice.
When considering whether to make an access restriction order in relation to the relevant service, and when considering what provision it should contain, the court must take into account (among other things) the rights and obligations of all relevant parties, including those of—
require such persons to take the steps specified in the order, or to put in place arrangements, to withdraw, adapt or manipulate the access facility in order to impede users’ access (by means of that facility) to the relevant service (or to part of it),
include steps or arrangements that will or may require the termination of an agreement (whether or not made before the coming into force of this section), or the prohibition of the performance of such an agreement,
Where a person who provides an access facility takes steps or puts in place arrangements required by an access restriction order, OFCOM may, by notice, require that person to (where possible) notify persons in the United Kingdom who attempt to access the relevant service via that facility of the access restriction order (and where a confirmation decision has been given to the non-compliant provider, the notification must refer to that decision).
For the purposes of this section, a facility is an “access facility” in relation to a regulated service if the person who provides the facility is able to withdraw, adapt or manipulate it in such a way as to impede access (by means of that facility) to the regulated service (or to part of it) by United Kingdom users of that service.
OFCOM may apply to the court for an interim order under this section (an “interim access restriction order”) in relation to a regulated service where they consider that—
a service restriction order under section 144 or an interim service restriction order under section 145 has been made in relation to the likely failure, and it was not sufficient to prevent significant harm arising to individuals in the United Kingdom as a result of the failure, or
the likely consequences of such a failure would be such that if a service restriction order or an interim service restriction order were to be made, it would be unlikely to be sufficient to prevent significant harm arising to individuals in the United Kingdom as a result of the failure,
An interim access restriction order is an interim order imposing requirements on one or more persons who provide an access facility (whether from within or outside the United Kingdom) in relation to a regulated service (see subsection (8)).
contain evidence as to why OFCOM consider that the persons mentioned in paragraph (d) provide an access facility in relation to the relevant service, and specify any such access facility provided,
in the case of an application made without notice having been given to the non-compliant provider, or to the persons mentioned in paragraph (d), state why no notice has been given.
The court may make an interim access restriction order imposing requirements on a person in relation to the relevant service if the court is satisfied—
that the level of risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom relating to the likely failure, and the nature and severity of that harm, are such that it is not appropriate to wait for the failure to be established before making the order, and
if no notice of the application has been given to the non-compliant provider, or to the persons on whom requirements are being imposed, that it is appropriate to make the order without notice.
the date on which the court makes an access restriction order under section 146 in relation to the relevant service that imposes requirements on the same persons on whom requirements are imposed by the interim order, or dismisses an application for such an order.
Subsections (5) to (8) of section 146 apply in relation to an interim access restriction order under this section as they apply in relation to an access restriction order under that section.
Where a person who provides an access facility takes steps or puts in place arrangements required by an interim access restriction order, OFCOM may, by notice, require that person to (where possible) notify persons in the United Kingdom who attempt to access the relevant service via that facility of the interim access restriction order.
Where OFCOM apply for a business disruption order in respect of a failure by a provider of a regulated service to comply with an enforceable requirement, nothing in sections 144 to 147 is to be taken to prevent OFCOM also giving the provider—
Where OFCOM apply for a business disruption order in respect of a failure by a provider of a Part 3 service to comply with a notice under section 121(1) (notices to deal with terrorism content and CSEA content), nothing in sections 144 to 147 is to be taken to prevent OFCOM also giving the provider either or both of the following—
Where OFCOM have given a person a provisional notice of contravention but have not given the person a confirmation decision, OFCOM may publish details identifying the person and describing the reasons for the provisional notice.
Where a publication notice requires a person to publish details under subsection (2)(a) the notice may also specify a period during which publication in the specified form and manner must continue.
Where a publication notice requires a person to give notification of details under subsection (2)(b) the notice may only require that notification to be given to United Kingdom users of the service (see section 227).
The guidance must, in particular, give information about the factors that OFCOM would consider it appropriate to take into account when taking, or considering taking, enforcement action relating to a person’s failure to comply with different kinds of enforceable requirements.
In relation to any enforcement action by OFCOM which relates to a failure by a provider of a regulated service to comply with a relevant duty, the guidance must include provision explaining how OFCOM will take into account the impact (or possible impact) of such a failure on children.
Guidelines prepared by OFCOM under section 392 of the Communications Act (amount of penalties) may, so far as relating to penalties imposed under this Chapter, be included in the same document as guidance under this section.
In exercising their functions under this Chapter, or deciding whether to exercise them, OFCOM must have regard to the guidance for the time being published under this section.
OFCOM must, in accordance with the following provisions of this section, exercise their powers under paragraph 14 of the Schedule to the Office of Communications Act 2002 (committees of OFCOM) to establish and maintain a committee to provide the advice specified in this section.
In appointing persons to be members of the committee, OFCOM must have regard to the desirability of ensuring that the members of the committee include—
OFCOM’s exercise of the power conferred by section 77 to require information about a matter listed in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 8, so far as relating to disinformation and misinformation, and
OFCOM’s exercise of their functions under section 11 of the Communications Act (duties to promote media literacy) in relation to countering disinformation and misinformation on regulated services.
The Secretary of State may by regulations require providers of regulated services to provide information for purposes related to the carrying out of independent research into online safety matters.
the imposition of requirements described in subsection (1) to be effected by means of notices given to providers of regulated services (“researcher access notices”);
creating offences, but such provision may not impose a penalty for an offence that is greater than a penalty of any of the descriptions mentioned in section 113.
Regulations under this section may apply generally or only in relation to specified descriptions of—
and provision made by virtue of section 224(1) in connection with this section may, in particular, make different provision for different descriptions of services, researchers, research or information.
processing of personal data that would contravene the data protection legislation (but in determining whether processing of personal data would do so, the duty imposed under the regulations to provide information is to be taken into account);
provision of information in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege, or (in Scotland) to confidentiality of communications, could be maintained in legal proceedings.
such other person as the Secretary of State considers appropriate to carry out functions under regulations made under this section (and the regulations may include provision establishing a body for this purpose).
In subsection (13), in the definition of “domestic and small business consumer”, in paragraph (b)(i), after “available” insert “or a provider of a regulated service”.
OFCOM’s statement about freedom of expression and privacy
OFCOM’s report under paragraph 12 of the Schedule to the Office of Communications Act 2002 for each financial year must contain a statement by OFCOM about the steps they have taken, and the processes they operate, to ensure that their online safety functions have been exercised in that year compatibly with Articles 8 and 10 of the Convention (so far as relevant).
the need to protect users from a breach of any statutory provision or rule of law concerning privacy that is relevant to the use or operation of a regulated service (including, but not limited to, any such provision or rule concerning the processing of personal data).
Unless the Secretary of State requires the production of a further report (see subsection (6)), the requirement in subsection (1) is met by producing and publishing one report within the period of 18 months beginning with the day on which sections 12 and 81(2) come into force (or if those provisions come into force on different days, the period of 18 months beginning with the later of those days).
OFCOM must produce and publish a report assessing the impact of the regulatory framework provided for in this Act on the availability and treatment of news publisher content and journalistic content on Category 1 services (and in this section, references to a report are to a report described in this subsection).
Unless the Secretary of State requires the production of a further report (see subsection (6)), the requirement in subsection (1) is met by producing and publishing one report within the period of two years beginning with the day on which sections 18 and 19 come into force (or if those sections come into force on different days, the period of two years beginning with the later of those days).
The Secretary of State may require OFCOM to produce and publish a further report if the Secretary of State considers that the regulatory framework provided for in this Act is, or may be, having a detrimental effect on the availability and treatment of news publisher content or journalistic content on Category 1 services.
OFCOM must produce transparency reports based on information contained in the transparency reports produced by providers of Part 3 services under section 77.
a summary of conclusions drawn from the transparency reports produced under section 77 regarding patterns or trends which OFCOM have identified in such reports,
if later, the earliest date specified by OFCOM for submission of a report under section 77 in a notice given to a provider (see subsection (3)(c) of that section).
OFCOM’s report must take into account the experiences of users and others in reporting content and making complaints to providers of Part 3 services, including—
The report must include advice from OFCOM about whether they consider that the Secretary of State should make regulations under section 217 (duty about alternative dispute resolution procedure).
In the report, OFCOM may make recommendations that they consider would improve the experiences of users and others in reporting content or making complaints to providers of Part 3 services, or would deliver better outcomes in relation to reports or complaints that are made.
The report is not required to address any matters which are the subject of a report by OFCOM under section 158 (report about the availability and treatment of news publisher content and journalistic content).
The Secretary of State must publish a statement responding to the report within the period of three months beginning with the day on which the report is published, and the statement must include a response to OFCOM’s advice about whether to make regulations under section 217.
The statement must be published in such manner as the Secretary of State considers appropriate for bringing it to the attention of persons who may be affected by it.
assess what role app stores play in children encountering content that is harmful to children, search content that is harmful to children or regulated provider pornographic content by means of regulated apps which the app stores make available,
explore whether children’s online safety would be better protected by the greater use of age assurance or particular kinds of age assurance by such providers, or by other measures.
OFCOM must publish the report during the period beginning two years, and ending three years, after the day on which sections 12 and 29 come into force (or if those sections come into force on different days, the later of those days).
describing how, and to what extent, persons carrying out independent research into online safety matters are currently able to obtain information from providers of regulated services to inform their research,
For the purposes of this section a person carries out “independent research” if the person carries out research on behalf of a person other than a provider of a regulated service.
a notice from a senior coroner under paragraph 1(2) of Schedule 5 to the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 in connection with an investigation into the death of a person;
a request for information in connection with the investigation of a procurator fiscal into, or an inquiry held or to be held in relation to, the death of a person;
In subsection (1)(b) “inquiry” means an inquiry held, or to be held, under the Inquiries into Fatal Accidents and Sudden Deaths etc. (Scotland) Act 2016 (asp 2).
In publishing a report mentioned in subsection (5), OFCOM must have regard to the need to exclude from publication, so far as that is practicable, the matters which are confidential in accordance with subsections (3) and (4).
a decision to include a regulated search service or a combined service in the part of the register referred to in section 95(2)(b) (Category 2A services);
Where an appeal is made under subsection (1)(a), (c) or (e), any special requirements need not be complied with until the determination or withdrawal of the appeal.
any duty or requirement of this Act that applies in relation to Category 1 services, Category 2A services and Category 2B services but not in relation to any other regulated services;
any duty or requirement of this Act that applies in relation to Category 1 services, Category 2A services and Category 2B services but not in relation to any other regulated services;
in the case of an appeal against a decision mentioned in subsection (1)(e), any duty or requirement of this Act that applies in relation to Category 1 services, Category 2A services and Category 2B services but not in relation to any other regulated services.
Where a decision is quashed, the Upper Tribunal must remit the decision to OFCOM for reconsideration with such directions (if any) as the Tribunal considers appropriate.
An appeal under subsection (1) by a person other than the person given the notice or decision in question may be brought only with the permission (or leave) of the Upper Tribunal.
Where a decision is quashed, the Upper Tribunal must remit the decision to OFCOM for reconsideration with such directions (if any) as the Tribunal considers appropriate.
An eligible entity may make a complaint to OFCOM that any feature of one or more regulated services, or any conduct of one or more providers of such services, or any combination of such features and such conduct is, appears to be, or presents a material risk of—
significantly adversely affecting the right to freedom of expression within the law of users of the services or members of the public, or of a particular group of such users or members of the public; or
otherwise having a significant adverse impact on users of the services or members of the public, or on a particular group of such users or members of the public.
But a complaint under subsection (1) that relates to a single regulated service or that relates to a single provider of one or more regulated services is only admissible if OFCOM consider that—
Regulations under subsection (3) must specify as one of the criteria that the entity must be a body representing the interests of users of regulated services, or members of the public, or a particular group of such users or members of the public.
time limits for taking steps in relation to such a complaint (or provision about how such time limits are to be determined) including time limits in relation to the determination of—
The Secretary of State may designate a statement for the purposes of this section if the requirements set out in section 173 (consultation and parliamentary procedure) are satisfied.
The statement is a statement prepared by the Secretary of State that sets out strategic priorities of His Majesty’s Government in the United Kingdom relating to online safety matters.
A statement designated under subsection (1) may be amended (including by replacing the whole or a part of the statement with new material) by a subsequent statement designated under that subsection, and this section and sections 92 and 173 apply in relation to any such subsequent statement as they apply in relation to the original statement.
Except as provided by subsection (8), no amendment may be made under subsection (6) within the period of five years beginning with the day on which a statement was most recently designated under subsection (1).
the Secretary of State considers that the statement, or any part of it, conflicts with any of OFCOM’s general duties (within the meaning of section 3 of the Communications Act).
This section sets out the requirements that must be satisfied in relation to a statement before the Secretary of State may designate it under section 172.
The Secretary of State must then wait until the end of the 40-day period and may not designate the statement if, within that period, either House of Parliament resolves not to approve it.
“The 40-day period” is the period of 40 days beginning with the day on which the draft is laid before Parliament (or, if it is not laid before each House on the same day, the later of the days on which it is laid).
In calculating the 40-day period, no account is to be taken of any period during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
The Secretary of State may give OFCOM a direction requiring OFCOM to establish a committee to provide them with advice about online safety matters of a kind specified in the direction.
A committee required to be established by a direction must, unless the direction specifies otherwise, publish a report within the period of 18 months after being established, and after that must publish periodic reports.
The Secretary of State may give a direction to OFCOM under subsection (2) or (3) if the Secretary of State has reasonable grounds for believing that circumstances exist that present a threat—
A direction under this subsection is a direction requiring OFCOM, in exercising their media literacy functions, to give priority for a specified period to specified objectives designed to address the threat presented by the circumstances mentioned in subsection (1).
A “public statement notice” is a notice requiring a provider of a regulated service to make a publicly available statement, by a date specified in the notice, about steps the provider is taking in response to the threat presented by the circumstances mentioned in subsection (1).
OFCOM may, by a public statement notice or a subsequent notice, require a provider of a regulated service to provide OFCOM with such information as they may require for the purpose of responding to that threat.
If a direction under subsection (2) or (3) is given on the ground mentioned in subsection (1)(a), the Secretary of State must publish the reasons for giving the direction.
If the Secretary of State varies or revokes a direction given under subsection (3), OFCOM may, in consequence, vary or revoke a public statement notice that they have given by virtue of the direction.
In subsection (2) “media literacy functions” means OFCOM’s functions under section 11 of the Communications Act (duties to promote media literacy), so far as functions under that section relate to regulated services.
OFCOM’s exercise of their powers under section 1(3) of the Communications Act (functions and general powers of OFCOM) to carry out research in connection with online safety matters or to arrange for others to carry out research in connection with such matters, and
In the rest of this section, “the guidance” means any such guidance as is mentioned in subsection (1), except that it does not include guidance under section 87 (guidance to OFCOM about fees).
the guidance needs to be corrected because of an amendment, repeal or modification of any provision of this Act or of section 11 of the Communications Act, or
In exercising any functions to which the guidance relates, or deciding whether to exercise them, OFCOM must have regard to the guidance for the time being published under this section.
must not be carried out before the end of the period of two years beginning with the day on which the last of the provisions of Part 3 comes into force, but
provide transparency and accountability to users in relation to actions taken to comply with duties set out in Chapter 2, 3, 4 or 5 of Part 3, Chapter 1, 3 or 4 of Part 4, or Part 5,
protect users from a breach of any statutory provision or rule of law concerning privacy that is relevant to the use or operation of a regulated service (including, but not limited to, any such provision or rule concerning the processing of personal data); and
ensuring that regulation of services is proportionate, having regard to the level of risk of harm presented by regulated services of different kinds and to the size and capacity of providers.
In carrying out the review, the Secretary of State must take into account any report published by OFCOM under section 158 (reports about news publisher content and journalistic content).
at the time of sending it, the person intended the message, or the information in it, to cause non-trivial psychological or physical harm to a likely audience, and
For the purposes of this offence an individual is a “likely audience” of a message if, at the time the message is sent, it is reasonably foreseeable that the individual—
In a case where several or many individuals are a likely audience, it is not necessary for the purposes of subsection (1)(c) that the person intended to cause harm to any one of them in particular (or to all of them).
on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
Proceedings for an offence under this section may be brought within the period of 6 months beginning with the date on which evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings comes to the prosecutor’s knowledge.
A certificate signed by the prosecutor as to the date on which the evidence in question came to the prosecutor’s knowledge is conclusive evidence of the date on which it did so; and a certificate to that effect and purporting to be so signed is to be treated as being so signed unless the contrary is proved.
An offence under section 179 cannot be committed by the holder of a licence under the Broadcasting Act 1990 or 1996 in connection with anything done under the authority of the licence.
An offence under section 179 cannot be committed by the holder of a multiplex licence in connection with anything done under the authority of the licence.
An offence under section 179 cannot be committed by the provider of an on-demand programme service in connection with anything done in the course of providing such a service.
was reckless as to whether an individual encountering the message would fear that the threat would be carried out (whether or not by the person sending the message).
If evidence is adduced which is sufficient to raise an issue with respect to the defence under subsection (3), the court must assume that the defence is satisfied unless the prosecution proves beyond reasonable doubt that it is not.
But a provider of an internet service by means of which a communication is sent, transmitted or published is not to be regarded as a person who sends a message.
It does not matter whether the content of a message is created by the person who sends it (so for example, in the online context, an offence may be committed by a person who forwards another person’s direct message or shares another person’s post).
an individual who is a likely audience in relation to the hyperlink for the purposes of section 179 is to be assumed to be a likely audience in relation to the linked content.
In the application of sections 179 to 181 to the sending of an item on which data is stored electronically, references to the message are to be read as including content accessed by means of the item to which the recipient is specifically directed by the sender (and in this subsection “sending” includes “giving”, and “sender” is to be read accordingly).
In the online context, the date on which a person commits an offence in relation to a message is the date on which the message is first sent by the person.
“Multiplex licence” means a licence under section 8 of the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 which authorises the provision of a multiplex service within the meaning of section 42(6) of that Act.
“On-demand programme service” has the same meaning as in the Communications Act (see section 368A of that Act), and a person is the “provider” of an on-demand programme service if the person has given notification of the person’s intention to provide that service in accordance with section 368BA of that Act.
at the time the communication is sent, it is reasonably foreseeable that an individual with epilepsy would be among the individuals who would view it, and
In subsections (2)(a) and (3)(a), references to viewing the communication are to be read as including references to viewing a subsequent communication forwarding or sharing the content of the communication.
For the purposes of subsection (1), a provider of an internet service by means of which a communication is sent is not to be regarded as a person who sends a communication.
In the application of subsection (1) to a communication consisting of or including a hyperlink to other content, references to the communication are to be read as including references to content accessed directly via the hyperlink.
It does not matter for the purposes of this section whether flashing images may be viewed at once (for example, a GIF that plays automatically) or only after some action is performed (for example, pressing play).
If a person (D1) arranges for a person (D2) to do an act that is capable of encouraging or assisting the serious self-harm of another person and D2 does that act, D1 is to be treated as also having done it.
In the application of subsection (1) to an act by D involving an electronic communication or a publication in physical form, it does not matter whether the content of the communication or publication is created by D (so for example, in the online context, the offence under this section may be committed by forwarding another person’s direct message or sharing another person’s post).
In the application of subsection (1) to the sending, transmission or publication by electronic means of a communication consisting of or including a hyperlink to other content, the reference in subsection (2)(b) to the communication is to be read as including a reference to content accessed directly via the hyperlink.
In the application of subsection (1) to an act by D involving an item on which data is stored electronically, the reference in subsection (2)(f) to the item is to be read as including a reference to content accessed by means of the item to which the person in receipt of the item is specifically directed by D.
A provider of an internet service by means of which a communication is sent, transmitted or published is not to be regarded as a person who sends, transmits or publishes it.
Any reference in this section to doing an act that is capable of encouraging the serious self-harm of another person includes a reference to doing so by threatening another person or otherwise putting pressure on another person to seriously self-harm.
“Seriously self-harm” is to be interpreted consistently with subsection (3).
Any reference to an act in this section, except in subsection (3), includes a reference to a course of conduct, and references to doing an act are to be read accordingly.
Proceedings for an offence committed under section 179, 181 or 183(1) outside the United Kingdom may be taken, and the offence may for incidental purposes be treated as having been committed, at any place in England and Wales or Northern Ireland.
Proceedings for an offence committed under section 184 outside the United Kingdom may be taken, and the offence may for incidental purposes be treated as having been committed, at any place in the United Kingdom.
In the application of subsection (6) to Scotland, any such proceedings against a person may be taken, and the offence may for incidental purposes be treated as having been committed—
In subsection (7) “sheriff court district” is to be construed in accordance with the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (see section 307(1) of that Act).
If an offence under section 179, 181, 183 or 184 is committed by a body corporate and it is proved that the offence—
the officer (as well as the body corporate) commits the offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
“Officer”, in relation to a body corporate, means—
In paragraph (a) “director”, in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate.
If an offence under section 184 is committed by a Scottish partnership and it is proved that the offence—
the partner (as well as the partnership) commits the offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
Repeals in connection with offences under section 188
Sections 33 to 35 of the Criminal Justice and Courts Act 2015 (disclosing or threatening to disclose private sexual photographs and films with intent to cause distress) are repealed.
whether a judgement is made by human moderators, by means of automated systems or processes or by means of automated systems or processes together with human moderators.
In making such judgements, the approach to be followed is whether a provider has reasonable grounds to infer that content is content of the kind in question (and a provider must treat content as content of the kind in question if reasonable grounds for that inference exist).
has reasonable grounds to infer that all elements necessary for the commission of the offence, including mental elements, are present or satisfied, and
In the case of content generated by a bot or other automated tool, the tests mentioned in subsection (6)(a) and (b) are to be applied in relation to the conduct or mental state of a person who may be assumed to control the bot or tool (or, depending what a provider knows in a particular case, the actual person who controls the bot or tool).
In considering a provider’s compliance with relevant requirements to which this section is relevant, OFCOM may take into account whether providers’ judgements follow the approaches set out in this section (including judgements made by means of automated systems or processes, alone or together with human moderators).
OFCOM must produce guidance for providers of Part 3 services about the matters dealt with in section 192 so far as relating to illegal content judgements.
the first guidance under section 193 relating to illegal content judgements within the meaning of subsection (2)(a) of that section (illegal content and fraudulent advertisements).
If OFCOM consider that it is necessary to extend the period mentioned in subsection (1) in relation to guidance mentioned in any of paragraphs (a) to (i) of subsection (2), OFCOM may extend the period in relation to that guidance by up to 12 months by making and publishing a statement.
But this is subject to subsection (6).
A statement under subsection (3) may be published at the same time as (or incorporate) a statement under section 43(12) (extension of time to prepare certain codes of practice).
a statement has previously been made under subsection (3) (whether in relation to guidance mentioned in the same or a different paragraph of subsection (2)), or
If a notice is given by OFCOM to a relevant entity (in the name of the entity) under any provision of this Act, the notice continues to have effect despite a change in the membership of the entity.
If a penalty notice is given jointly to two or more officers or members of a relevant entity, those individuals are jointly and severally liable to pay the penalty under it.
In subsection (4) the reference to officers or members of a relevant entity includes a reference to employees of such an entity or any other individuals associated with such an entity.
This section applies in relation to two or more individuals who together are the provider of a regulated service (see section 226(3), (5), (7), (9) and (11)).
Any duty or requirement imposed on such a provider under any of the provisions specified in subsection (3), or any liability of such a provider to pay a fee under section 84 or Schedule 10, is to be taken to be imposed on, or to be a liability of, all the individuals jointly and severally.
A notice in respect of a matter that may or must be given by OFCOM under any provision of this Act may be given—
but a separate notice may not be given to each of the individuals in respect of the matter.
A power conferred by Chapter 6 of Part 7 (enforcement powers) to give a notice to a provider of a regulated service is to be read as including power to give a notice to a person who was, at the relevant time, a provider of such a service but who has ceased to be a provider of such a service (and that Chapter and Schedules 13 and 15 are to be read accordingly).
in the case of a notice which relates to the requirement in section 105(1) to co-operate with an investigation, the time of the failure or possible failure to which the investigation relates.
OFCOM have given the person a provisional notice of contravention in respect of the failure to comply with the requirements of an information notice or the requirements imposed by a person acting under Schedule 12 (as the case may be),
OFCOM have given the person a confirmation decision in respect of that failure imposing requirements of a kind described in section 133(1) and the time allowed for compliance with the decision has expired without those requirements having been complied with,
a service restriction order under section 144 has not been made in relation to a regulated service provided by the person in respect of that failure, and
Proceedings for an offence under section 110(2) (failure by named senior manager to prevent offence under section 109(1)) may be brought only if the conditions in subsection (1) are met in respect of the offence under section 109(1).
Where a penalty has been imposed on a person in respect of an act or omission constituting an offence under section 69 or 109 or paragraph 18 of Schedule 12, no proceedings may be brought against the person for that offence.
Where a penalty has been imposed on an entity in respect of an act or omission constituting an offence under section 109, no proceedings for an offence under section 110 may be brought against an individual in respect of a failure to prevent that offence.
A penalty may not be imposed on a person in respect of an act or omission constituting an offence under section 69 or 109 or paragraph 18 of Schedule 12 if—
Where a penalty has been imposed on a person by a penalty notice under section 139 in respect of a failure constituting an offence under section 138 (failure to comply with certain requirements of a confirmation decision), no proceedings may be brought against the person for that offence.
Where a service restriction order under section 144 or an access restriction order under section 146 has been made in relation to a regulated service provided by a person in respect of a failure constituting an offence under section 138, no proceedings may be brought against the person for that offence.
If evidence is adduced which is sufficient to raise an issue with respect to the defence, the court must assume that the defence is satisfied unless the prosecution proves beyond reasonable doubt that it is not.
If an offence is committed by a relevant entity and it is proved that the offence—
the officer (as well as the entity) commits the offence and (subject to section 199(1)) is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
In relation to an entity which is a body corporate, “officer” means—
In paragraph (a) “director”, in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate.
Proceedings for an offence alleged to have been committed by a relevant entity must be brought against the entity in its own name (and not in that of any of its officers or members).
section 18 of the Criminal Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 1945 (c. 15 (N.I.)) and Article 166 of, and Schedule 4 to, the Magistrates’ Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)).
If an offence is committed by a relevant entity and it is proved that the offence—
the officer (as well as the entity) commits the offence and (subject to section 199(1)) is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
References in this Act to an internet service, a user-to-user service or a search service include such a service provided from outside the United Kingdom (as well as such a service provided from within the United Kingdom).
The power to require the production of documents by an information notice includes power to require the production of documents held outside the United Kingdom.
Sections 202(2) and 203(5), so far as relating to an offence under a section specified in subsection (1) or (3) of this section, apply to acts done by an individual in the United Kingdom or elsewhere (liability of directors etc of providers of regulated services).
Anything required by this Act to be published by OFCOM must be published in such manner as OFCOM consider appropriate for bringing it to the attention of the persons who, in their opinion, are likely to be affected by it.
A notice to an entity that is not a legal person under the law under which it is formed (other than a partnership) may be given to any member of the governing body of the entity.
In the case of a notice given to a person who is a provider of a regulated service, the person’s proper address for the purposes of paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (2), and section 7 of the Interpretation Act 1978 in its application to those paragraphs, is any address (within or outside the United Kingdom) at which OFCOM believe, on reasonable grounds, that the notice will come to the attention of the person or (where the person is an entity) any director or other officer of that entity.
In the case of a notice given to a person other than a provider of a regulated service, a person’s proper address for the purposes of paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (2), and section 7 of the Interpretation Act 1978 in its application to those paragraphs, is—
In the case of an entity registered or carrying on business outside the United Kingdom, or with offices outside the United Kingdom, the reference in subsection (7) to its principal office includes its principal office in the United Kingdom or, if the entity has no office in the United Kingdom, any place in the United Kingdom at which OFCOM believe, on reasonable grounds, that the notice will come to the attention of any director or other officer of that entity.
In the case of a notice given to an individual under section 106 (interviews), the reference in subsection (7) to the person’s last known address is to the individual’s home address or, if the individual is currently connected with a provider of a regulated service, the address of the provider’s registered or principal office.
if there is no such published address, any email address by means of which OFCOM believe, on reasonable grounds, that the notice will come to the attention of that person or (where that person is an entity) any director or other officer of that entity.
about the application of this Act and Part 4B of the Communications Act during a period before the repeal of Part 4B of the Communications Act (or, in the case of Part 3 of Schedule 17, in respect of charging years as mentioned in that Part);
the application of Schedule 17 in relation to a service if the transitional period in relation to that service ends on a date before the date when section 210 comes into force;
the application of Part 3 of Schedule 17, including further provision about the calculation of a provider’s non-Part 4B qualifying worldwide revenue for the purposes of paragraph 19 of that Schedule;
the application of Schedule 10 (recovery of OFCOM’s initial costs), and in particular how fees chargeable under that Schedule may be calculated, in respect of charging years to which Part 3 of Schedule 17 relates.
The Secretary of State may, for the purpose of protecting relevant children from a risk of harm (including harm presented by content), make provision by regulations requiring providers of specified internet services—
to prevent access by relevant children to specified internet services which they provide, or to specified functionalities or other features of such services;
to restrict access by relevant children to specified internet services which they provide, or to specified functionalities or other features of such services.
“Relevant child” means a child who is of, or under, a specified age (and different ages may be specified for the purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (1)).
limit the amount of time per day, or over the course of a specified period, for which relevant children may access the service or a specified functionality or other feature of the service;
a user of the service could encounter live oral communications or live video generated directly on the service, or uploaded to or shared on the service, by a person who is not known to the user;
a person who is not known to a user of the service could encounter live oral communications or live video generated directly on the service, or uploaded to or shared on the service, by the user;
The provision that may be made by virtue of subsection (3)(c) includes provision for a requirement to be an enforceable requirement for the purposes of Chapter 6 of Part 7.
the different ways in which an internet service of a particular kind is used, including functionalities or other features of the service that affect how much children use the service, and the impact of such use on the level of risk of harm that might be suffered by children, and
the fact that children of different ages may be affected by an internet service, or a functionality or other feature of an internet service, in different ways.
confer functions on a person, including functions involving the exercise of a discretion, and make provision in connection with the procedure for exercising the functions;
must exercise the power under subsection (1) so as to make such provision as the Secretary of State considers appropriate following the conclusion of the consultation entitled “Growing up in the online world: a national consultation” launched on 2 March 2026 (command paper numbered CP 1528), and
Subject to the following provisions of this section and section 216, the Secretary of State may by regulations amend any provision of this Act to make provision for or in connection with the regulation of internet services that are app stores.
Regulations under this section may be made only if the Secretary of State, having considered that report, considers that there is a material risk of significant harm to an appreciable number of children presented by either of the following, or by both taken together—
Provision may be made by regulations only for or in connection with the purposes of minimising or mitigating the risks of harm to children presented by harmful content as mentioned in section 215(3)(a) and (b).
make provision corresponding or similar to provision which may be made by regulations under paragraph 1 of Schedule 11 (“threshold conditions”), with the effect that only app stores which meet specified conditions are regulated by this Act.
Regulations may make provision having the effect that app stores provided from outside the United Kingdom are regulated by this Act (as well as app stores provided from within the United Kingdom), but, if they do so, must contain provision corresponding or similar to section 4(5) and (6) (UK links).
imposing on providers of app stores duties corresponding or similar to duties imposed on providers of internet services within section 80(2) by section 81 (duties about regulated provider pornographic content);
imposing on providers of app stores requirements corresponding or similar to requirements imposed on providers of regulated services by, or by OFCOM under, Part 6 (fees);
imposing on OFCOM duties in relation to app stores corresponding or similar to duties imposed in relation to Part 3 services by Chapter 3 of Part 7 (OFCOM’s register of risks, and risk profiles);
conferring on OFCOM functions in relation to app stores corresponding or similar to the functions that OFCOM have in relation to regulated services under—
The provision that may be made by regulations includes provision having the effect that app stores fall within the definition of “Part 3 service” or “regulated service” for the purposes of specified provisions of this Act (with the effect that specified provisions of this Act which apply in relation to Part 3 services or regulated services, or to providers of Part 3 services or regulated services, also apply in relation to app stores or to providers of app stores).
Subject to subsection (14)(b), the Secretary of State may by regulations amend any provision of this Act for or in connection with the purposes of minimising or mitigating the risks of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by—
In this section, “AI service” means an internet service that is capable (or part of which is capable) of generating AI-generated content (no matter what proportion of content on the service is AI-generated).
The provision that may be made by regulations includes provision securing that any or all of the duties set out in subsection (4) are imposed on providers of AI services in relation to—
duties imposed on providers of regulated user-to-user services by section 9 or 10 (illegal content and activity) or any of sections 20 to 23 so far as relating to section 9 or 10;
duties imposed on providers of regulated search services or combined services by section 26 or 27 (search content that is illegal content) or any of sections 31 to 34 so far as relating to section 26 or 27;
The provision that may be made by regulations by virtue of subsection (3) includes provision imposing duties on providers of AI services in relation to illegal AI-generated content of all kinds even where a corresponding or similar duty imposed on providers of regulated user-to-user or search services relates only to priority illegal content.
The provision that may be made by regulations includes provision securing that the duties imposed on providers of Category 1 services and Category 2A services by section 38 or 39 (fraudulent advertising), or duties corresponding or similar to those duties, are imposed on providers of AI services in relation to fraudulent advertisements (whether or not AI-generated).
The provision that may be made by regulations includes provision securing that the requirements imposed on providers of Part 3 services by section 66 (reporting CSEA content), or requirements corresponding or similar to those requirements, are imposed on providers of AI services in relation to AI-generated CSEA content (and if such corresponding or similar requirements are imposed, regulations may amend section 67(1) so as to refer to the provision imposing them, as well as to section 66).
that providers of AI services are subject to the requirements imposed on providers of regulated services by, or by OFCOM under, Part 6 (fees), or are subject to requirements corresponding or similar to those requirements;
that duties imposed on OFCOM in relation to Part 3 services by Chapter 3 of Part 7 (OFCOM’s register of risks, and risk profiles), or duties corresponding or similar to those duties, are imposed on OFCOM in relation to AI services, so far as relating to illegal AI-generated content generated by such services or their use for the commission or facilitation of priority offences;
that functions conferred on OFCOM in relation to regulated services under the following provisions, or functions corresponding or similar to those functions, are conferred on OFCOM in relation to AI services, so far as relating to provision made by the regulations—
that powers conferred on OFCOM in relation to Part 3 services under Chapter 5 of Part 7 (notices to deal with terrorism content and CSEA content), or powers corresponding or similar to those powers, are conferred on OFCOM in relation to AI services, so far as relating to AI-generated terrorism content or AI-generated CSEA content;
The provision that may be made by regulations includes provision securing that any provision of this Act that applies in relation to illegal content or illegal content of a particular kind applies (with or without modifications), or does not apply, in relation to illegal AI-generated content or illegal AI-generated content of a particular kind.
provision securing that AI services fall within the definition of “regulated user-to-user service”, “regulated search service”, “combined service”, “Part 3 service” or “regulated service” (so far as that is not already the case) or are excluded from any of those definitions;
Regulations may make provision securing that providers of specified kinds of AI services are exempt from the requirement to comply with specified duties or requirements imposed by the regulations.
provision conferring power on the Secretary of State to make regulations containing provision in relation to AI services that corresponds or is similar to provision that may be made by regulations under paragraph 1 of Schedule 11 (“threshold conditions”).
Regulations may make provision having the effect that AI services provided from outside the United Kingdom are regulated by this Act (as well as AI services provided from within the United Kingdom), but, if they do so, must contain equivalent provision to that made in relation to user-to-user services and search services by section 4(5) and (6) (UK links).
may make different provision with regard to AI-generated content generated by different kinds of automated tools or functionalities available on AI services;
may make provision with regard only to AI-generated content generated by specified kinds of automated tools or functionalities available on AI services.
Regulations may make provision as to the meaning of any reference to “AI-generated”, or “AI-generated content”, inserted by the regulations into this Act.
is a duty requiring providers of Category 1 services to arrange for and engage in an alternative dispute resolution procedure in specified circumstances for the resolution of disputes about their handling of relevant complaints, and
may include a duty requiring such providers to meet the costs incurred by any other person in using a dispute resolution procedure which is so arranged.
Regulations under this section may not be made before the publication of a statement by the Secretary of State responding to OFCOM’s report under section 160 (report about reporting and complaints procedures in use by providers of Part 3 services: see subsection (10) of that section).
Provision made by regulations under this section may have the effect that the duties set out in any or all of sections 21, 22 and 23 which apply in relation to duties imposed by other provisions of Chapter 2 of Part 3 are also to apply in relation to the ADR duty, and accordingly the regulations may amend—
The provisions of this Act that may be amended by the regulations in connection with the imposition of the ADR duty include, but are not limited to, the following provisions (in addition to those mentioned in subsection (7))—
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend this Act for or in connection with the imposition, on providers of regulated services or regulated services of a particular kind, of duties relating to—
verifying whether individuals appearing in pornographic content published or displayed on those regulated services consent to the content being published or displayed (“consent verification duties”).
Age verification duties and consent verification duties may include duties relating to the systems and processes used to operate regulated services, or regulated services of a particular kind.
Regulations under this section may make provision requiring OFCOM to issue guidance to providers of regulated services, or regulated services of a particular kind, to assist them to comply with age verification duties and consent verification duties.
The provisions of this Act that may be amended by the regulations in connection with the imposition of age verification duties and consent verification duties include, but are not limited to, section 131(2).
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend section 40 (fraud etc offences).
But the power to add an offence to that section is limited by subsections (2) and (3).
the prevalence on Category 1 services of content (other than regulated user-generated content) consisting of paid-for advertisements that amount to that offence, or the prevalence in or via search results of Category 2A services of paid-for advertisements that amount to that offence,
references to advertisements that amount to an offence are to be construed in accordance with section 59 (see subsections (3), (11) and (12) of that section).
there is a material risk of significant harm to an appreciable number of children presented by content of that kind that is regulated user-generated content or search content, and
it is appropriate for the duties set out in sections 12(3)(a) and 29(3)(a) (duty in relation to children of all ages) to apply in relation to content of that kind.
A kind of content may be added to section 62 only if the Secretary of State considers that, in relation to Part 3 services, there is a material risk of significant harm to an appreciable number of children presented by content of that kind that is regulated user-generated content or search content.
the way in which a service featured in the content may be performed (for example, in the case of the performance of a service by a person not qualified to perform it).
The Secretary of State may by regulations—
if the Secretary of State considers that it is appropriate to do so because of the risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by one-to-one live aural communications.
Subject to subsection (3), the Secretary of State may by regulations amend section 55(2)(e), (6) or (7) if the Secretary of State considers that it is appropriate to do so because of the risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by comments and reviews on provider content.
Regulations under subsection (2) may not have the effect that comments and reviews on provider content present on a service of which the provider is a recognised news publisher become regulated user-generated content within the meaning of Part 3.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend Part 1 of Schedule 1 to provide for a further description of user-to-user service or search service to be exempt, if the Secretary of State considers that the risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by a service of that description is low.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend Schedule 9 to provide for a further description of internet service to be included, if the Secretary of State considers that the risk of harm to children in the United Kingdom presented by regulated provider pornographic content published or displayed on a service of that description is low.
The condition is that the Secretary of State considers that it is appropriate to amend or repeal the provision in question (as the case may be) because of the risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by a service of the description in question.
Subject to subsection (10), the Secretary of State may by regulations amend paragraph 4 of Schedule 1 (limited functionality services) if the Secretary of State considers that it is appropriate because of the risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by a service described in that paragraph.
Regulations under subsection (9) may not have the effect that a service described in paragraph 4 of Schedule 1 of which the provider is a recognised news publisher is no longer exempt under that paragraph.
Regulations under subsection (7) may amend or repeal a provision of Schedule 2 in connection with the amendment or repeal of a provision of Part 1 of Schedule 1.
Regulations under subsection (7)(b) may amend or repeal a provision of sections 3, 5 and 55 in connection with the amendment or repeal of a provision of Part 1 of Schedule 1.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend or repeal any provision of Schedule 9 added in exercise of the power conferred by subsection (6), if the Secretary of State considers that it is appropriate to do so because of the risk of harm to children in the United Kingdom presented by regulated provider pornographic content published or displayed on a service of that description.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend Schedule 7 (priority offences).
But an offence may be added to that Schedule only on the grounds in subsection (4) or (5), and subsection (6) limits the power to add an offence.
the prevalence on regulated user-to-user services of regulated user-generated content that amounts to that offence, or the prevalence on regulated search services and combined services of search content that amounts to that offence,
the risk of harm to individuals in the United Kingdom presented by regulated user-generated content or search content that amounts to that offence, and
references to content that amounts to an offence are to be construed in accordance with section 59 (see subsections (3), (11) and (12) of that section).
A power to make regulations under this Act includes power to make supplementary, incidental, transitional, transitory or saving provision.
This subsection does not apply to regulations under section 223 (consequential provision).
A statutory instrument containing (whether alone or with other provision)—
may not be made unless a draft of the instrument has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament.
A statutory instrument containing regulations under section 219(1) may not be made unless a draft of the instrument has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament.
But a statutory instrument mentioned in subsection (2) may be made without a draft of the instrument being laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament if it contains a declaration that the Secretary of State is of the opinion that, because of urgency, it is necessary to make the regulations without a draft being so laid and approved.
Regulations contained in an instrument made in accordance with subsection (3) cease to have effect at the end of the period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the instrument is made unless, during that period, the instrument is approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament.
A statutory instrument containing (whether alone or with other provision) the first regulations under the following provisions may not be made unless a draft of the instrument has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament—
Any other statutory instrument containing regulations under a provision mentioned in subsection (8) is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament.
As soon as a draft of a statutory instrument containing regulations under section 85(1) or paragraph 5(9) of Schedule 13 (whether alone or with provision under section 85(2)) is ready for laying before Parliament, OFCOM must send the draft to the Secretary of State, and the Secretary of State must lay the draft before Parliament.
Immediately after making a statutory instrument containing only regulations under section 85(2), OFCOM must send the instrument to the Secretary of State, and the Secretary of State must lay it before Parliament.
Regulations made by the Scottish Ministers under—
are subject to the affirmative procedure (see section 29 of the Interpretation and Legislative Reform (Scotland) Act 2010 (asp 10)).
A statutory instrument containing regulations under section 221(5) may not be made by the Welsh Ministers unless a draft of the instrument has been laid before and approved by a resolution of Senedd Cymru.
The power of the relevant Department to make regulations under section 221(7) is exercisable by statutory rule for the purposes of the Statutory Rules (Northern Ireland) Order 1979 (S.I. 1979/1573 (N.I. 12)).
Regulations may not be made by the relevant Department under section 221(7) unless a draft of the regulations has been laid before and approved by a resolution of the Northern Ireland Assembly.
In this Act “interested person”, in relation to a search service or a combined service, means a person that is responsible for a website or database capable of being searched by the search engine, provided that—
For the purposes of subsection (1) a service is “made available by means of the internet” even where it is made available by means of a combination of—
includes a service or functionality which enables a person to search some websites or databases (as well as a service or functionality which enables a person to search (in principle) all websites or databases);
For the purposes of this Act, a search engine is not to be taken to be “included” in an internet service or a user-to-user service if the search engine is controlled by a person who does not control other parts of the service.
“Content identification technology” means technology, such as algorithms, keyword matching, image matching or image classification, which analyses content to assess whether it is content of a particular kind (for example, illegal content).
But content identification technology is not to be regarded as proactive technology if it is used in response to a report from a user or other person about particular content.
“User profiling technology” means technology which analyses (any or all of)—
for the purposes of building a profile of a user to assess characteristics such as age.
analyses data specifically provided by a user for the purposes of the provider verifying or estimating the user’s age in order to decide whether to allow the user to access a service (or part of a service) or particular content, and
“Behaviour identification technology” means technology which analyses (any or all of)—
to assess a user’s online behaviour or patterns of online behaviour (for example, to assess whether a user may be involved in, or be the victim of, illegal activity).
But behaviour identification technology is not to be regarded as proactive technology if it is used in response to concerns identified by another person or an automated tool about a particular user.
data created, compiled or obtained by providers of regulated services and relating to users (for example, data relating to when or where users access a service or how they use it).
References in this Act to proactive technology include content identification technology, user profiling technology or behaviour identification technology which utilises artificial intelligence or machine learning.
Accredited technology that may be required to be used in relation to the detection of terrorism content or CSEA content (or both) by a notice under section 121(1) is an example of content identification technology.
This section specifies factors which OFCOM must, in particular, consider when deciding whether content is communicated “publicly” or “privately” by means of a user-to-user service for the purposes of—
any restrictions on who may access the content by means of the service (for example, a requirement for approval or permission from a user, or the provider, of the service);
inability to access a service (or part of a service) or to access particular content except by using particular technology or a particular kind of device (as long as that technology or device is generally available to the public).
In this Act “functionality”, in relation to a user-to-user service, includes any feature that enables interactions of any description between users of the service by means of the service, and includes any feature enabling a user to do anything listed in subsection (2).
sharing current or historic location information with other users of the service, recording a user’s movements, or identifying which other users of the service are nearby;
References to harm presented by content, and any other references to harm in relation to content, include references to harm arising or that may arise from any one or combination of the following—
References to harm presented by content, and any other references to harm in relation to content, include references to cumulative harm arising or that may arise in the following circumstances—
where content, or content of a particular kind, is repeatedly encountered by an individual (including, but not limited to, where content, or a kind of content, is sent to an individual by one user or by different users or encountered as a result of algorithms used by, or functionalities of, a service);
where content of a particular kind is encountered by an individual in combination with content of a different kind (including, but not limited to, where a kind of content is sent to an individual by one user or by different users or encountered as a result of algorithms used by, or functionalities of, a service).
References to harm presented by content, and any other references to harm in relation to content, include references to harm arising or that may arise in the following circumstances—
where, as a result of the content, individuals do or say something to another individual that results in harm to that other individual or that increases the likelihood of such harm (including, but not limited to, where individuals act in such a way as a result of content that is related to that other individual’s characteristics or membership of a group).
References to a risk of harm in relation to functionalities, and references to the risk of functionalities facilitating users encountering particular kinds of content (however expressed), include references to risks arising or that may arise due to multiple functionalities which, used in combination, increase the likelihood of harm arising (for example, as mentioned in subsection (4)).
In contexts where harm (or a risk of harm or potential harm) relates to children, subsections (4) to (5) are to be read as if they referred to children instead of individuals.
the functions that OFCOM have under the provisions of the Communications Act listed in subsection (2), so far as those functions relate to regulated services or Part 3 services (as the case may be), and
the functions that OFCOM have under section 3 of the Communications Act (general duties), so far as duties under that section relate to a function which is an online safety function by reason of sub-paragraph (i) or (ii);
include references to OFCOM’s power to do anything appearing to them to be incidental or conducive to the carrying out of any of their functions within paragraph (a)(i) or (ii) (see section 1(3) of the Communications Act).
References to OFCOM’s “online safety functions” also include references to OFCOM’s duty to comply with any of the following, so far as relating to the use of a regulated service by a person who has died—
a notice from a senior coroner under paragraph 1(2) of Schedule 5 to the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 in connection with an investigation into a person’s death;
a request for information in connection with the investigation of a procurator fiscal into, or an inquiry held or to be held in relation to, a person’s death;
In subsection (3)(b) “inquiry” means an inquiry held, or to be held, under the Inquiries into Fatal Accidents and Sudden Deaths etc. (Scotland) Act 2016 (asp 2).
The definitions of “encounter” and “person” in subsection (1) do not apply for the purposes of Part 10 (for the definition of “encounter” in that Part, see section 182(5)).
References in this Act to a kind of user-to-user service or search service (or Part 3 service) include references to user-to-user services or search services grouped together for the purposes of a risk profile prepared by OFCOM under section 98 (and references to different kinds of user-to-user services or search services (or Part 3 services) are to be read accordingly).
References in this Act to content (or content of a particular kind) present or prevalent on a user-to-user service (or on a part of it), or to the presence, incidence or prevalence of content (or content of a particular kind) on a user-to-user service (or on a part of it), do not include, in the case of a user-to-user service that includes a search engine—
In this subsection “search content” and “search request” have the same meaning as in Part 3 (see section 57).
any reference to the use of or access to a service, or to content present, published or displayed on a service, is to be taken to include use of or access to the service or content on registering or on the making of a payment or on subscription;
any reference to content that is made available or that may be accessed, encountered or shared, is to be taken to include content that is made available or that may be accessed, encountered or shared for a limited period of time only;
For the purposes of this Act, content that is user-generated content in relation to an internet service does not cease to be such content in relation to the service when published or displayed on the service by means of—
Nothing in this Act (other than section 212) affects any prohibition or restriction in relation to pornographic content, or powers in relation to such content, under another enactment or rule of law.
His Majesty may by Order in Council provide for any of the provisions of this Act to extend, with or without modifications, to the Bailiwick of Guernsey or to the Isle of Man.
The power conferred by section 411(6) of the Communications Act may be exercised so as to extend to the Bailiwick of Guernsey or the Isle of Man any amendment or repeal made by or under this Act of any part of that Act (with or without modifications).
The power conferred by section 338 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 may be exercised so as to extend to the Bailiwick of Guernsey or the Isle of Man the amendments of provisions of that Act made by paragraph 17 of Schedule 14.
The power conferred by section 60(6) of the Modern Slavery Act 2015 may be exercised so as to extend to the Bailiwick of Guernsey or the Isle of Man the amendments of Schedule 4 to that Act made by paragraph 19 of Schedule 14.
The power conferred by section 415(1) of the Sentencing Act 2020 may be exercised so as to extend to the Bailiwick of Guernsey or the Isle of Man the amendments of Schedule 18 to that Act made by paragraph 20 of Schedule 14.
Regulations under subsection (1) may not bring section 210 into force before the end of the period of six months beginning with the date specified in regulations under paragraph 8(1) of Schedule 3.
The Secretary of State may by regulations make transitional, transitory or saving provision in connection with the coming into force of any provision of this Act.
A user-to-user service is exempt if SMS messages and MMS messages are the only user-generated content (other than identifying content) enabled by the service.
A user-to-user service is exempt if one-to-one live aural communications are the only user-generated content (other than identifying content) enabled by the service.
A user-to-user service is exempt if the functionalities of the service are limited, such that users are able to communicate by means of the service only in the following ways—
In sub-paragraph (1), “provider content” means content published on a service by the provider of the service or by a person acting on behalf of the provider, including where the publication of the content is effected or controlled by means of—
For the purposes of this paragraph, content that is user-generated content in relation to a service is not to be regarded as provider content in relation to that service.
the user-to-user service or search service is an internal resource or tool for a business, or for more than one business carried on by the same person,
persons who work for P (including as employees or volunteers) for the purposes of any activities of the business (or any of the businesses) in question, and
any other persons authorised by a person within sub-paragraph (i), (ii) or (iii) to use the service for the purposes of any activities of the business (or any of the businesses) in question (for example, a contractor, consultant or auditor, or in the case of an educational institution, pupils or students).
the provider of the service is Parliament, either House of Parliament, the Scottish Parliament, Senedd Cymru, the Northern Ireland Assembly or a person acting on behalf of any of those institutions,
the provider of the service is an entity formed under the law of a country outside the United Kingdom, which exercises functions of a public nature, and
But a user-to-user service or a search service is not exempt under this paragraph if—
See paragraph 10 for an exemption for services provided by persons providing education or childcare of particular descriptions.
the person with legal responsibility for education or childcare of a description listed in Part 2 of this Schedule (“the responsible person”), or where the responsible person is a body, a member of that body, or
a person who is employed or engaged to provide education or childcare of a description listed in Part 2 of this Schedule, and who is subject to safeguarding duties which relate to the provision of that education or childcare, and
In sub-paragraph (1)(a)(ii), “safeguarding duties” means duties or requirements which are related to the safeguarding of children arising under enactments other than this Act, under guidance or requirements (however referred to) produced under enactments other than this Act, or as a result of contractual arrangements made by the responsible person.
For the purposes of this paragraph, the person with legal responsibility for education or childcare of a particular description is the person with legal responsibility for its day-to-day provision (for example, the person with legal responsibility for a particular school), rather than any other person who has a duty to ensure that, in general, education or childcare of that description (or education or childcare which includes education or childcare of that description) is provided.
Childcare by persons who act as child minders or provide day care for children within the meaning of the Children (Northern Ireland) Order 1995 (S.I. 1995/755 (N.I. 2)), and who are registered under Article 118 of that Order.
in relation to provision in Scotland, means early learning and childcare within the meaning of Part 6 of the Children and Young People (Scotland) Act 2014 (see section 46 of that Act), and any form of care provided outside school hours or during school holidays to children who are in attendance at an educational establishment (and in this paragraph, “educational establishment” has the same meaning as in the Education (Scotland) Act 1980 (see section 135(1) of that Act));
in relation to provision in Wales, means anything that amounts to child minding or day care for children for the purposes of Part 2 of the Children and Families (Wales) Measure 2010 (see section 19(2) to (4) of that Measure), and any form of care provided by a school outside school hours or during school holidays (and in this paragraph “school” has the same meaning as in the Education Act 1996 as it applies in relation to Wales (see section 4 of that Act));
in relation to provision in Northern Ireland, means anything that amounts to child minding or day care for the purposes of Part 11 of the Children (Northern Ireland) Order 1995, and any form of care provided by a school outside school hours or during school holidays (and in this paragraph “school” has the same meaning as in the Education and Libraries (Northern Ireland) Order (see Article 2(2) of that Order)).
in relation to provision in Northern Ireland, means primary education, secondary education, further education, higher education or education in agriculture and related subjects.
“Education in agriculture and related subjects”, in relation to provision in Northern Ireland, means education consisting of instruction in agriculture and related subjects provided by the Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs in Northern Ireland under section 5(2)(a) of the Agriculture Act (Northern Ireland) 1949 (c. 2 (N.I.)), but not where the instruction is provided only to the Department’s employees.
in relation to provision in Scotland, has the same meaning as in Part 1 of the Further and Higher Education (Scotland) Act 1992 (see sections 1(3) and 6 of that Act);
in relation to provision in Northern Ireland, has the same meaning as in the Further Education (Northern Ireland) Order 1997 (see Article 3 of that Order).
in relation to provision in Scotland, has the same meaning as in Part 2 of the Further and Higher Education (Scotland) Act 1992 (see section 38 of that Act);
any other education provided by a higher education institution within the meaning of the Education and Libraries (Northern Ireland) Order 1993 (S.I. 1993/2810 (N.I. 12)) (see Article 30 of that Order).
in relation to provision in Northern Ireland, have the same meaning as in the Education and Libraries (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (see Article 2(2) of that Order).
For the purposes of this Schedule, a service “has links with the United Kingdom” if it has links with the United Kingdom within the meaning of section 80(4).
This paragraph applies in relation to a Part 3 service which is in operation immediately before the day on which the first illegal content risk assessment guidance is published.
The first illegal content risk assessment of the service must be completed within the period of three months beginning with the day on which that guidance is published.
New Part 3 services which start up, and existing services which become Part 3 services, between publication of the first illegal content risk assessment guidance and the first CAA guidance
Sub-paragraphs (3) and (4) apply if, on the first day, illegal content risk assessment guidance is available but the first CAA guidance has not yet been published.
In this paragraph “the first day”, in relation to a Part 3 service, means the first day on which the service is a Part 3 service (being a new service).
If, on the first day, illegal content risk assessment guidance and CAA guidance are both available, both of the following must be completed within the period of three months beginning with that day—
In this paragraph “the first day”, in relation to a Part 3 service, means the first day on which the service becomes, or again becomes, a Part 3 service (following a period during which the service was not a Part 3 service).
If, on the first day, illegal content risk assessment guidance and CAA guidance are both available, both of the following must be completed within the period of three months beginning with that day—
the first day on which the service is again treated as likely to be accessed by children (following a period during which the service was not so treated).
If, on the relevant day, children’s risk assessment guidance is available, a children’s risk assessment of the service must be completed within the period of three months beginning with that day.
The first children’s risk assessment of the service must be completed within the period of three months beginning with the day on which the first children’s risk assessment guidance is published.
If, on the relevant day, section 15(2) guidance is available, a section 15(2) assessment of the service must be completed within the period of three months beginning with that day.
The first section 15(2) assessment of the service must be completed within the period of three months beginning with the day on which the first section 15(2) guidance is published.
is a video-sharing platform service by reason of the conditions in section 368S(1) and (2) of the Communications Act being met in relation to the service as a whole, and
is a video-sharing platform service by reason of the conditions in section 368S(1)(a) and (2) of the Communications Act being met in relation to that dissociable section, and
In sub-paragraph (1), any reference to a service provided before Schedule 17 comes into force includes a reference to a service provided in breach of the requirement in section 368V of the Communications Act.
if the pre-existing Part 4B service ceases to be a video-sharing platform service before the date specified in the regulations, the date when that service ceases to be a video-sharing platform service.
But in respect of any period during which this Schedule is fully in force and no regulations under sub-paragraph (1) have yet been made, the definition in sub-paragraph (1) has effect as if—
Any reference in this Part to the effect of Part 1 or 2 of this Schedule is a reference to the effect that Part 1 or 2 would have if this Part were disregarded.
If the effect of Part 1 of this Schedule is that the period within which the first illegal content risk assessment or CAA of the service must be completed begins on a day before the assessment start day, the time for carrying out that assessment is extended as set out in paragraph 12 or 13.
If the effect of paragraph 6 is that the period within which the first section 15(2) assessment of the service must be completed begins on a day before the assessment start day, the time for carrying out that assessment is extended as set out in paragraph 14.
Sub-paragraphs (2) and (3) apply in relation to the service if, on the assessment start day, illegal content risk assessment guidance is available but the first CAA guidance has not yet been published.
If, on the assessment start day, illegal content risk assessment guidance and CAA guidance are both available, both of the following must be completed within the period of three months beginning with that day—
If section 15(2) guidance is available on the assessment start day, the first section 15(2) assessment of the service must be completed within the period of three months beginning with that day.
If, on the assessment start day, the first section 15(2) guidance has not yet been published, the first section 15(2) assessment of the service must be completed within the period of three months beginning with the day on which the first section 15(2) guidance is published.
Paragraphs 16 to 20 make provision about the timing of assessments in the case of a regulated user-to-user service which includes a pre-existing Part 4B service within the definition in paragraph (b) of paragraph 7(1).
If the effect of Part 1 or paragraph 6 of this Schedule is that the period within which the first illegal content risk assessment, CAA or section 15(2) assessment of the regulated service must be completed begins on a day before the assessment start day—
the time for carrying out the assessment in question in relation to the Part 4B part is extended as set out in paragraph 16, 17 or 18 (whichever applies),
Sub-paragraphs (2) and (3) apply in relation to the Part 4B part if, on the assessment start day, illegal content risk assessment guidance is available but the first CAA guidance has not yet been published.
The first illegal content risk assessment of the Part 4B part must be completed within the period of three months beginning with the assessment start day.
The first CAA of the Part 4B part must be completed within the period of three months beginning with the day on which the first CAA guidance is published.
If, on the assessment start day, illegal content risk assessment guidance and CAA guidance are both available, both of the following must be completed within the period of three months beginning with that day—
If section 15(2) guidance is available on the assessment start day, a section 15(2) assessment of the Part 4B part must be completed within the period of three months beginning with that day.
If, on the assessment start day, the first section 15(2) guidance has not yet been published, a section 15(2) assessment of the Part 4B part must be completed within the period of three months beginning with the day on which the first section 15(2) guidance is published.
This paragraph applies in relation to—
References in the rest of this paragraph to an illegal content risk assessment, a CAA or a section 15(2) assessment are to an assessment of that kind to which this paragraph applies.
an illegal content risk assessment or a CAA of the regulated service if an assessment of that kind is due to be carried out in relation to the Part 4B part of the service in accordance with paragraph 16 or 17;
a section 15(2) assessment of the regulated service if a section 15(2) assessment is due to be carried out in relation to the Part 4B part of the service in accordance with paragraph 18.
the regulated service is “type 1” if it would still be a regulated user-to-user service even if the Part 4B part were to be assumed not to be part of the service;
If the regulated service is type 1, an illegal content risk assessment, a CAA or a section 15(2) assessment is to be treated as being due at the time provided for by Part 1 or paragraph 6 only in relation to the rest of the service.
an illegal content risk assessment is not required to be carried out at the time provided for by Part 1, but that is not to be taken to prevent an illegal content risk assessment as defined by section 26 from being due in relation to the search engine of the service at the time provided for by Part 1;
If the regulated service is type 3, no illegal content risk assessment, CAA or section 15(2) assessment is required to be carried out at the time provided for by Part 1 or paragraph 6.
The definition of “the relevant day” is to operate by reference to the CAA that was (or was required to be) carried out, and accordingly, references to the day on which the service is to be treated as likely to be accessed by children are to be read as references to the day on which the Part 4B part of the service, the rest of the service or the search engine of the service (as the case may be) is to be treated as likely to be accessed by children.
References to a children’s risk assessment of the service are to a children’s risk assessment of the Part 4B part of the service, the rest of the service or the search engine of the service (as the case may be).
For the purposes of this Schedule, guidance of a particular kind is available at a particular time if at that time there is in existence published guidance of that kind.
This paragraph applies in relation to a time-limit of three months imposed by any provision of this Schedule for completing a CAA, a section 15(2) assessment or a particular kind of risk assessment.
in accordance with a notice published by OFCOM specifying a longer period for CAAs, section 15(2) assessments or risk assessments of that kind (as the case may be) which relate to Part 3 services of a particular kind or size.
consider the appropriateness of provisions of the code of practice to different kinds and sizes of Part 3 services and to providers of differing sizes and capacities, and
providers of Part 3 services must be able to understand which provisions of the code of practice apply in relation to a particular service they provide;
the measures described in the code of practice must be sufficiently clear, and at a sufficiently detailed level, that providers understand what those measures entail in practice;
the measures described in the code of practice must be proportionate and technically feasible: measures that are proportionate or technically feasible for providers of a certain size or capacity, or for services of a certain kind or size, may not be proportionate or technically feasible for providers of a different size or capacity or for services of a different kind or size;
the measures described in the code of practice that apply in relation to Part 3 services of various kinds and sizes must be proportionate to OFCOM’s assessment (under section 98) of the risk of harm presented by services of that kind or size.
(in the case of a Category 1 service) users are offered options to increase their control over the content they encounter and the users they interact with,
there are adequate controls over access to, and use of, the service by children, taking into account use of the service by, and impact on, children in different age groups;
a service should be designed and operated so as to protect individuals in the United Kingdom who are users of the service from harm, including with regard to—
a search engine should be designed and operated so as to protect individuals in the United Kingdom who are users of the service from harm, including with regard to—
the online safety objectives set out in paragraph 5 apply in relation to the search engine, and accordingly references in that paragraph to a search service are to be read as references to the search engine;
the reference in paragraph 5(a)(iii) to a publicly available statement includes a reference to provisions of the terms of service which relate to the search engine.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend paragraph 4 or 5 so as to vary the online safety objectives for regulated user-to-user services or regulated search services, and such regulations may make consequential amendments of paragraph 6.
If regulations are made amending the online safety objectives, OFCOM must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the regulations come into force, consider whether a review of the codes of practice published under section 46 is required and, if OFCOM consider that it is required, carry out a review to assess whether any amendments are needed to reflect the revised objectives.
Codes of practice that describe measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with a duty set out in section 10(2) , (3) or (3A) (illegal content) must include measures in each of the areas of a service listed in section 10(4).
Codes of practice that describe measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with a duty set out in section 12(2) or (3) (children’s online safety) must include measures in each of the areas of a service listed in section 12(8).
Codes of practice that describe measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with a duty set out in section 27(2) , (3) or (3A) (illegal content) must include measures in each of the areas of a service listed in section 27(4).
Codes of practice that describe measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with a duty set out in section 29(2) or (3) (children’s online safety) must include measures in each of the areas of a service listed in section 29(4).
Sub-paragraphs (1) to (4) apply to the extent that inclusion of the measures in question is consistent with paragraph 1(a) and the principles mentioned in paragraph 2(c) and (d).
Measures described in a code of practice which are recommended for the purpose of compliance with any of the relevant duties must be designed in the light of the principles mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and (where appropriate) incorporate safeguards for the protection of the matters mentioned in those principles.
the importance of protecting the right of users and (in the case of search services or combined services) interested persons to freedom of expression within the law, and
In sub-paragraph (2)(b) the reference to protecting the privacy of users is to protecting users from a breach of any statutory provision or rule of law concerning privacy that is relevant to the use or operation of a user-to-user service or a search service (including, but not limited to, any such provision or rule concerning the processing of personal data).
This paragraph is about the inclusion of age assurance in a code of practice as a measure recommended for the purpose of compliance with any of the duties set out in section 12(2) or (3) or 29(2) or (3), and sub-paragraph (2) sets out some further principles, in addition to those in paragraphs 1 and 2 (general principles) and 10(2) (freedom of expression and privacy), which are particularly relevant.
relevant standards set out in the latest version of the code of practice under section 123 of the Data Protection Act 2018 (age-appropriate design code);
protecting the right of users and (in the case of search services or the search engine of combined services) interested persons to freedom of expression within the law;
the principle that age assurance should work effectively for all users regardless of their characteristics or whether they are members of a certain group;
In a code of practice that describes measures for the purpose of compliance with the duty set out in section 12(3)(a), OFCOM must recommend (among other things) age verification or age estimation which is such of a kind, and which is to be used in such a way, that it is highly effective at correctly determining whether or not a particular user is a child (see section 12(6)).
In deciding which kinds and uses of age verification or age estimation to recommend for the purpose of compliance with the duty set out in section 12(3)(a), OFCOM must have regard to their guidance under section 82 that gives examples of kinds and uses of age verification and age estimation that are, or are not, highly effective at correctly determining whether or not a particular user is a child.
Nothing in sub-paragraph (2) is to be read as allowing OFCOM to recommend, for the purpose of compliance with the duty set out in section 12(3)(a) by providers subject to the requirement in section 12(4), a kind or use of age verification or age estimation which does not meet the requirement to be highly effective as mentioned in section 12(6).
A code of practice that recommends the use of age assurance for the purpose of compliance with the duties set out in section 12(2) or (3) must also describe measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with the duties set out in—
A code of practice that recommends the use of age assurance for the purpose of compliance with the duties set out in section 29(2) or (3) must also describe measures recommended for the purpose of compliance with the duties set out in—
In this paragraph “age assurance” means age verification or age estimation, and see in particular section 230(4) (self-declaration of age not to be regarded as age verification or age estimation).
If OFCOM consider it appropriate to do so, and in accordance with the principles to which they must have regard (see paragraphs 1 and 2 and, in particular, 10(2)), they may include in a code of practice a measure describing the use of a kind of technology.
But there are constraints, set out in the rest of this paragraph, on OFCOM’s power to include in a code of practice a measure describing the use of proactive technology as a way (or one of the ways) of complying with a duty set out in this Act (a “proactive technology measure”).
A proactive technology measure may relate to the use of a kind of technology on or in relation to any Part 3 service or any part of such a service, but if the technology operates (or may operate) by analysing user-generated content or metadata relating to such content, the measure may not recommend the use of the technology to analyse user-generated content communicated privately, or metadata relating to user-generated content communicated privately.
A proactive technology measure may be included in a code of practice in relation to Part 3 services of a particular kind or size only if OFCOM are satisfied that use of the technology in question by such services would be proportionate to the risk of harm that the measure is designed to safeguard against (taking into account, in particular, the risk profile for the time being published by OFCOM under section 98 relating to such services).
In deciding whether to include a proactive technology measure in a code of practice, OFCOM must have regard to the degree of accuracy, effectiveness and lack of bias achieved by the technology in question, and may—
set out principles in the code of practice designed to ensure that the technology or its use is (so far as possible) accurate, effective and free of bias.
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 (encouraging or assisting) in relation to an offence specified in this Schedule, or (in Scotland) inciting a person to commit such an offence.
An offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in this Schedule, or (in Scotland) being involved art and part in the commission of such an offence.
An offence under section 2 of the Obscene Publications Act 1959 relating to an obscene article tending to deprave and corrupt others by encouraging them to commit an offence specified in paragraph 2, 4, 5, 7 or 8.
An offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in this Part, or being involved art and part in the commission of such an offence.
An offence under section 2 of the Human Trafficking and Exploitation (Criminal Justice and Support for Victims) Act (Northern Ireland) 2015 (c. 2 (N.I.)) (human trafficking).
An offence under section 2 of the Abusive Behaviour and Sexual Harm (Scotland) Act 2016 (asp 22) (disclosing, or threatening to disclose, an intimate photograph or film).
An offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 (encouraging or assisting) in relation to an offence specified in this Schedule, or (in Scotland) inciting a person to commit such an offence.
An offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence specified in this Schedule, or (in Scotland) being involved art and part in the commission of such an offence.
The dissemination of illegal content, content that is harmful to children, relevant content and content to which section 15(2) applies by means of a service.
The number of users who are assumed to have encountered illegal content, content that is harmful to children, relevant content or content to which section 15(2) applies by means of the service.
The systems and processes for users to report content which they consider to be illegal content, content that is harmful to children or relevant content.
The systems and processes that a provider operates to deal with illegal content, content that is harmful to children and relevant content, including systems and processes for identifying such content and taking it down.
Features, including functionalities, that a provider considers may contribute to risks of harm to individuals using the service, and measures taken or in use by the provider to mitigate and manage those risks.
The design and operation of algorithms which affect the display, promotion, restriction or recommendation of illegal content, content that is harmful to children, relevant content or content to which section 15(2) applies.
Measures taken or in use by a provider to comply with any duty set out in Chapter 2 or 4 of Part 3 or section 38 (including in particular measures that are described in a code of practice under section 41).
Arrangements that a provider has in place for the reporting (in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) of content relating to child sexual exploitation and abuse, and measures taken or in use by a provider to comply with a requirement under section 66.
The systems and processes by which a provider assesses the risk of harm to individuals from the presence of illegal content or content that is harmful to children—
to direct users of the service to information about how they can protect themselves from harm in relation to illegal content and content that is harmful to children, and
to counteract or provide support to users of the service in relation to illegal content and content that is harmful to children present on the service.
Co-operation by a provider with government, regulatory or other public sector bodies in the United Kingdom, in particular those involved in the enforcement of the criminal law.
The systems and processes for users to report search content which they consider to be illegal content or content that is harmful to children, or other content which they consider breaches any statements of policies and procedures which have been made publicly available by the provider of a service.
The systems and processes that a provider operates to deal with illegal search content and search content that is harmful to children, including systems and processes for identifying such content and minimising the risk of those kinds of content being encountered by means of the service.
The design and operation of algorithms which affect the display, promotion, restriction or recommendation of illegal search content or search content that is harmful to children.
Measures taken or in use by a provider to comply with any duty set out in Chapter 3 or 4 of Part 3 or section 39 (including in particular measures that are described in a code of practice under section 41).
Arrangements that a provider has in place for the reporting (in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) of content relating to child sexual exploitation and abuse, and measures taken or in use by a provider to comply with a requirement under section 66.
The systems and processes by which a provider assesses the risk of harm to individuals from illegal search content or search content that is harmful to children—
to direct users of the service to information about how they can protect themselves from harm in relation to illegal content and content that is harmful to children, and
Co-operation by a provider with government, regulatory or other public sector bodies in the United Kingdom, in particular those involved in the enforcement of the criminal law.
amend Part 1 or Part 2 of this Schedule so as to add further matters about which information may be required, or to vary or omit matters about which information may be required, and
In the application of Part 2 of this Schedule to a combined service, references to statements of policies and procedures include references to provisions of the terms of service which relate to the search engine.
a term of service, other than a term of service within sub-paragraph (2), indicates (in whatever words) that the presence of content of that kind is prohibited on the service or that users’ access to content of that kind is restricted, and
terms of service which make provision of the kind mentioned in section 10(5) (protecting individuals from illegal content) or 12(9) (protecting children from content that is harmful to children);
persons who work for P (including as employees or volunteers) for the purposes of any activities of the business (or any of the businesses) in question, and
any other persons authorised by a person within sub-paragraph (i), (ii) or (iii) to use the service for the purposes of any activities of the business (or any of the businesses) in question (for example, a contractor, consultant or auditor, or in the case of an educational institution, pupils or students).
In sub-paragraph (2)(b), “the rest of the service” means all parts of the internet service other than the part in relation to which the conditions in paragraph 1(2) are met.
the provider of the service is Parliament, either House of Parliament, the Scottish Parliament, Senedd Cymru, the Northern Ireland Assembly or a person acting on behalf of any of those institutions,
the provider of the service is an entity formed under the law of a country outside the United Kingdom, which exercises functions of a public nature, and
the person with legal responsibility for education or childcare of a description listed in Part 2 of Schedule 1 (“the responsible person”), or where the responsible person is a body, a member of that body, or
a person who is employed or engaged to provide education or childcare of a description listed in Part 2 of Schedule 1, and who is subject to safeguarding duties which relate to the provision of that education or childcare, and
In sub-paragraph (1)(a)(ii), “safeguarding duties” means duties or requirements which are related to the safeguarding of children arising under enactments other than this Act, under guidance or requirements (however referred to) produced under enactments other than this Act, or as a result of contractual arrangements made by the responsible person.
For the purposes of this paragraph, the person with legal responsibility for education or childcare of a particular description is the person with legal responsibility for its day-to-day provision (for example, the person with legal responsibility for a particular school), rather than any other person who has a duty to ensure that, in general, education or childcare of that description (or education or childcare which includes education or childcare of that description) is provided.
In this paragraph and paragraph 6, “on-demand programme service” , “non-UK on-demand programme service” and “Tier 1 service” have the same meaning as in the Communications Act (see sections 368A, 368AA and 368HA of that Act).
In sub-paragraph (2)(b), “the rest of the service” means all parts of the internet service other than the part which is an on-demand programme service or a non-UK on-demand programme service that is a Tier 1 service.
This Schedule concerns the recovery by OFCOM of an amount equal to the aggregate of the amounts of WTA receipts which, in accordance with section 401(1) of the Communications Act and OFCOM’s statement under that section, are retained by OFCOM for the purpose of meeting their initial costs.
OFCOM must seek to recover the amount described in sub-paragraph (1) (“the total amount of OFCOM’s initial costs”) by charging providers of regulated services fees under this Schedule (“additional fees”).
The first phase of OFCOM’s recovery of their initial costs is to take place over a period of several charging years to be specified in regulations under paragraph 7 (“specified charging years”).
Over that period OFCOM must, in aggregate, charge providers of regulated services additional fees of an amount equal to the total amount of OFCOM’s initial costs.
OFCOM may require a provider to pay an additional fee in respect of a charging year only if the provider is required to pay a fee in respect of that year under section 84 (and references in this Schedule to charging providers are to be read accordingly).
OFCOM’s statement must also specify the amount which is equal to that portion of the recoverable amount which is not likely to be paid or recovered.
The amount so specified is referred to in sub-paragraphs (4) and (5) as “the outstanding amount”.
Unless a determination is made as mentioned in sub-paragraph (5), OFCOM must, in aggregate, charge providers of regulated services additional fees of an amount equal to the outstanding amount.
The Secretary of State may, as soon as reasonably practicable after the publication of OFCOM’s statement, make a determination specifying an amount by which the outstanding amount is to be reduced, and in that case OFCOM must, in aggregate, charge providers of regulated services additional fees of an amount equal to the difference between the outstanding amount and the amount specified in the determination.
Additional fees mentioned in sub-paragraph (4) or (5) must be charged in respect of the charging year immediately following the last of the specified charging years (“year 1”).
in sub-paragraph (2), the reference to the end of the last of the specified charging years were to the end of year 1 (and so on for successive charging years);
Sub-paragraphs (4) and (5) of paragraph 2 apply to the charging of additional fees under this paragraph as they apply to the charging of additional fees under that paragraph.
Or the Secretary of State may bring that process to an end by making a determination that OFCOM are not to embark on another round of charging providers of regulated services additional fees.
to bring proceedings for the recovery of the whole or part of an additional fee for which a provider became liable at any time before the determination was made, or
For the purposes of this Schedule, the “provider” of a regulated service, in relation to a charging year, includes a person who is the provider of the service for part of the year.
Where a person is the provider of a regulated service for part of a charging year only, OFCOM may refund all or part of an additional fee paid to OFCOM under paragraph 2 or 3 by that provider in respect of that year.
The Secretary of State must make regulations making such provision as the Secretary of State considers appropriate in connection with the recovery by OFCOM of their initial costs.
The regulations must specify the computation model that OFCOM must use to calculate fees payable by individual providers of regulated services under paragraphs 2 and 3 (and that computation model may be different for different charging years).
The regulations may make provision about what OFCOM may or must do if the operation of this Schedule results in them recovering more than the total amount of their initial costs.
The Secretary of State must make regulations specifying conditions (“Category 1 threshold conditions”) for the user-to-user part of regulated user-to-user services relating to each of the following—
The Secretary of State must make regulations specifying conditions (“Category 2A threshold conditions”) for the search engine of regulated search services and combined services relating to each of the following—
The Secretary of State must make regulations specifying conditions (“Category 2B threshold conditions”) for the user-to-user part of regulated user-to-user services relating to each of the following—
Regulations under this paragraph must specify the way or ways in which the relevant threshold conditions may be met, and that may be by meeting the conditions in any specified combination, subject to the rule that—
in relation to the Category 1 threshold conditions and the Category 2B threshold conditions, at least one specified condition about number of users or functionality must be met, and
In making regulations under sub-paragraph (1), the Secretary of State must take into account the likely impact of the number of users of the user-to-user part of the service, and its functionalities, on how easily, quickly and widely regulated user-generated content is disseminated by means of the service.
In making regulations under sub-paragraph (2), the Secretary of State must take into account the likely impact of the number of users of the search engine on the level of risk of harm to individuals from search content that is illegal content or search content that is harmful to children.
In making regulations under sub-paragraph (3), the Secretary of State must take into account the likely impact of the number of users of the user-to-user part of the service, and its functionalities, on the level of risk of harm to individuals from illegal content and content that is harmful to children disseminated by means of the service.
This paragraph describes the procedure that must be followed in relation to the making of the first regulations under each of sub-paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of paragraph 1.
In the case of regulations under paragraph 1(1), within the period of six months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed, OFCOM must carry out research into—
such other characteristics of that part of such services or factors relating to that part of such services as OFCOM consider to be relevant to specifying the Category 1 threshold conditions.
In the case of regulations under paragraph 1(2), within the period of six months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed, OFCOM must carry out research into the following aspects of the search engine of regulated search services and combined services—
In the case of regulations under paragraph 1(3), within the period of six months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed, OFCOM must carry out research into—
such other characteristics of that part of such services or factors relating to that part of such services as OFCOM consider to be relevant to specifying the Category 2B threshold conditions.
OFCOM must provide the Secretary of State with advice based on the research under sub-paragraph (2), (3) or (4) (as the case may be) as to the provision which OFCOM consider it is appropriate for the regulations in question to make.
Such advice may include advice that the regulations should include another characteristic or factor in addition to number of users and (in the case of regulations under paragraph 1(1) or (3)) functionalities, and what that other characteristic or factor should be.
If the regulations include provision which differs in any material respect from provision advised by OFCOM, the Secretary of State must publish a statement which explains why the Secretary of State has departed from that advice.
The Secretary of State may give OFCOM extra time to carry out their research in the case of regulations under paragraph 1(2) or (3), but OFCOM must carry out such research within the period of 18 months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed.
The Secretary of State may not make regulations under paragraph 1 until OFCOM have carried out research and provided advice to the Secretary of State as required by this paragraph.
Regulations in force under paragraph 1(1) may not be amended or replaced by further regulations under that provision except following further research carried out by OFCOM into the matters mentioned in paragraph 2(2).
Regulations in force under paragraph 1(2) may not be amended or replaced by further regulations under that provision except following further research carried out by OFCOM into the matters mentioned in paragraph 2(3).
Regulations in force under paragraph 1(3) may not be amended or replaced by further regulations under that provision except following further research carried out by OFCOM into the matters mentioned in paragraph 2(4).
if the new regulations include provision which differs in any material respect from provision advised by OFCOM, the Secretary of State must publish a statement explaining the departures from that advice;
if OFCOM’s advice was as mentioned in sub-paragraph (6)(b), the Secretary of State must publish a statement explaining the reasons for the new regulations.
Where OFCOM’s advice is as mentioned in sub-paragraph (6)(a) and the Secretary of State does not make new regulations, the Secretary of State must, as soon as reasonably practicable, publish a statement explaining that decision.
A statement mentioned in sub-paragraph (8) or (9) must be published in such manner as the Secretary of State considers appropriate for bringing it to the attention of persons who may be affected by it.
In arranging for the publication of advice under paragraph 2(7)(a) or 3(7), OFCOM must have regard to the need to exclude from publication, so far as that is practicable, matters which are confidential in accordance with sub-paragraphs (2) and (3).
References in this Schedule to the number of users of a user-to-user part of a service or a search engine are to the number of United Kingdom users of such a part or search engine.
In this Schedule the “characteristics” of a user-to-user part of a service or a search engine include its user base, business model, governance and other systems and processes.
require any person on the premises to provide any information, or produce any document in the person’s possession or control, that the authorised person considers is relevant to the provision of the regulated service, and
The power to observe the carrying on of the regulated service at the premises includes the power to view, using equipment or a device on the premises, information generated in real time by the performance of a test or demonstration required by a notice given under paragraph 3.
An authorised person may exercise powers conferred by this paragraph only so far as is required in connection with the exercise by OFCOM of their functions under this Act.
OFCOM may give the occupier of the premises a notice requiring relevant information to be provided, relevant documents to be produced, or a relevant test or demonstration to be performed, during the inspection.
For the purposes of this paragraph, information or a document, test or demonstration is “relevant” if it is required in connection with the exercise by OFCOM of their functions under this Act.
specify or describe the information to be provided, the documents to be produced, or the test or demonstration to be performed, during the inspection, and
to assist an authorised person to view information of a specified description that is capable of being viewed using equipment or a device on the premises;
to assist an authorised person to view, using equipment or a device on the premises, information demonstrating in real time the operation of systems, processes or features of a specified description, including functionalities or algorithms of a specified description;
to assist an authorised person to view, using equipment or a device on the premises, information generated in real time by the performance of a test or demonstration of a specified description;
to comply with a request from an authorised person for a copy (in such form as may be requested) of the documents or information to which the person is directed or which the person is assisted to view;
to permit an authorised person to inspect the documents, information or equipment to which the person is directed or which the person is assisted to view;
to make available for interview by the authorised person a specified number of people of a specified description who are involved in the provision of the regulated service (not exceeding the number who are willing to be interviewed).
An audit notice may not require a provider to do anything that would result in the disclosure of information or documents in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege, or (in Scotland) to confidentiality of communications, could be maintained in legal proceedings.
If OFCOM require a provider to pay an amount as mentioned in sub-paragraph (8), paragraph 6 of Schedule 13 applies in relation to the amount as it applies in relation to a penalty within the meaning of that Schedule.
A justice of the peace or (in Northern Ireland) a lay magistrate may issue a warrant in relation to premises specified in an application only if satisfied on sworn information in writing given by an authorised person that—
there is information or equipment on the premises, or there are documents on the premises, relevant to OFCOM’s investigation into that failure (or possible failure); and
OFCOM have previously given notice to enter the premises, as required in relation to entry without a warrant under paragraph 2, but a person authorised by OFCOM to exercise powers under that paragraph was denied access,
supply the occupier (if present), or any other person appearing to the authorised person to be in charge of the premises, with a copy of the warrant, and
If neither the occupier nor any other person appearing to the authorised person to be in charge of the premises is present, the authorised person must leave a copy of the warrant in a prominent place on the premises.
An authorised person executing a warrant may do any of the following for the purposes of OFCOM’s investigation into whether there is, or has been, a failure referred to in paragraph 5(1)(b)(i)—
require any person on the premises to provide information, including requiring an explanation of any document found on the premises or any information capable of being viewed using equipment or a device on the premises;
require information which is stored in electronic form and may be accessed from the premises to be produced in a form in which it can be taken away and in which it is visible and legible (or from which it can readily be produced in a visible and legible form);
require any person on the premises to give the authorised person any assistance that the authorised person may reasonably require (including for the purposes of paragraphs (g) and (h));
seize any document found on the premises or produced in response to a requirement under paragraph (e), or anything produced in accordance with paragraph (g), or any equipment found on the premises;
Entry and search under a warrant must be at a reasonable hour, unless it appears to the person executing it that the purpose of a search would be frustrated or seriously prejudiced by entry at a reasonable hour.
An authorised person executing a warrant may take such other persons and such equipment and materials onto the premises as appear to that person to be necessary.
A person taken on to the premises under paragraph 11 may exercise any power conferred on an authorised person by paragraph 7 if the person is in the company and under the supervision of an authorised person executing a warrant.
If the premises are unoccupied or the occupier is temporarily absent, an authorised person executing a warrant must leave the premises as effectively secured against trespassers as that person found them.
in the case of a warrant issued in England and Wales, the designated officer for the local justice area in which the justice of the peace was acting when issuing the warrant;
The appropriate person must retain a search warrant returned under sub-paragraph (1) or (2) until the end of the period of 12 months starting with the date of its return.
Those powers are not exercisable in relation to information or documents in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege, or (in Scotland) to confidentiality of communications, could be maintained in legal proceedings.
in response to a requirement imposed by a person acting under this Schedule, the person provides information that is false in a material respect, knowing that it is false in a material respect or being reckless as to whether it is false in a material respect.
References in this Schedule to a person “acting under this Schedule” are to a person acting—
and the reference in paragraph 18(1)(a) also includes a person carrying out an audit in accordance with an audit notice.
In the application of paragraph 5(1) to Northern Ireland, the reference to sworn information in writing has effect as a reference to a complaint on oath.
In the case of a penalty imposed by a confirmation decision, OFCOM must also take into account any representations made, and evidence provided, by any other person to whom the earlier provisional notice of contravention relating to the same matter was given.
in the case of a penalty imposed by a penalty notice under section 140(5), any steps taken by the person towards complying with the notice under section 121(1);
in the case of a penalty imposed by a penalty notice under section 141(6), any steps taken by the person towards paying any amount of the fee due to OFCOM.
See also section 392 of the Communications Act (which requires OFCOM to produce guidelines about their determination of the amount of penalties that they impose).
A confirmation decision or penalty notice may not impose a penalty of a different kind, of a greater amount or (in the case of a penalty calculated by reference to a daily rate) payable over a longer period than that proposed in the earlier notice in relation to the same matter.
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in a case where a provisional notice of contravention and confirmation decision in relation to the same matter are both given jointly (in accordance with Schedule 15) to the same entities, but does not otherwise apply in relation to a penalty for which two or more entities are jointly and severally liable.
Where a penalty is imposed on a person in respect of a regulated service provided by that person, the maximum amount of the penalty for which the person is liable is whichever is the greater of—
If the person’s first accounting period has not yet ended, sub-paragraph (1)(b) is to be read as referring to 10% of the amount that OFCOM estimate to be the person’s likely qualifying worldwide revenue for that period.
If the duration of the accounting period by reference to which an amount of qualifying worldwide revenue is calculated is less than a year, the amount mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b) is to be proportionately increased.
If the duration of that accounting period is more than a year, that amount is to be proportionately reduced.
The amount of a person’s qualifying worldwide revenue for an accounting period is, in the event of a disagreement between the person and OFCOM, the amount determined by OFCOM.
In the case of a confirmation decision that imposes a penalty of a single amount and a penalty calculated by reference to a daily rate, references in sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) to the maximum amount for which a person is liable are to the maximum amount of both those penalties taken together.
In this paragraph “accounting period”, in relation to a person, means a period in respect of which accounts are prepared in relation to that person or, where that person is an individual, in respect of that individual’s business of providing a regulated service.
Regulations made by OFCOM under section 85(1)(a) (including regulations making provision of a kind mentioned in section 85(3), (4) or (5)) apply for the purpose of determining the qualifying worldwide revenue of a provider of a regulated service for an accounting period as mentioned in this paragraph as they apply for the purpose of determining the qualifying worldwide revenue of a provider of a regulated service for a qualifying period for the purposes of Part 6.
This paragraph contains modifications of paragraph 4 in a case where, in accordance with Schedule 15, two or more entities are jointly and severally liable for a penalty.
if the first accounting period of the entities liable for the penalty has not yet ended, the amount that OFCOM estimate to be the group’s likely qualifying worldwide revenue for that period.
the reference in sub-paragraph (4)(a) to the accounting period of the entities is to be read as a reference to the accounting period of any of the entities (at OFCOM’s discretion), and
Sub-paragraphs (5), (6) and (7) of paragraph 4 are to be read with the necessary modifications in their application for the purposes of this paragraph.
are to apply in relation to an entity which is not an undertaking (as defined in section 1161(1) of that Act) as they apply in relation to an undertaking, and
OFCOM may by regulations make provision about how the qualifying worldwide revenue of a group of entities is to be determined for the purposes of this paragraph.
In Scotland, a penalty may be enforced in the same manner as an extract registered decree arbitral bearing a warrant for execution issued by the sheriff court of any sheriffdom in Scotland.
In Schedule 3 to the Regulatory Enforcement and Sanctions Act 2008 (relevant enactments for the purposes of relevant functions to which Parts 1 and 2 of that Act apply), at the appropriate place insert—
In Schedule 1 to the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (offences against children and young persons with respect to which special provisions of Act apply), after the entry relating to the Suicide Act 1961 insert—
Children and Young Persons Act (Northern Ireland) 1968 (c. 34 (N.I.))
In Schedule 1 to the Children and Young Persons Act (Northern Ireland) 1968 (offences against children and young persons with respect to which special provisions of Act apply), after the entry relating to the Criminal Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 1966 insert—
Criminal Attempts and Conspiracy (Northern Ireland) Order 1983 (S.I. 1983/1120 (N.I. 13))
In Article 3 of the Criminal Attempts and Conspiracy (Northern Ireland) Order 1983 (attempting to commit an offence), in paragraph (4), after sub-paragraph (c) insert—
In Schedule 1 to the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 (offences against children and young persons with respect to which special provisions of Act apply), in the first entry relating to the Sexual Offences Act 2003, after “66” insert “, 66A, 66B”.
In section 65A of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (“qualifying offences” for the purposes of Part 5 of that Act), in subsection (2)(p) after “61 to” insert “66A, 66B(2) and (3),”.
after “exposure” insert “, sending etc photograph or film of genitals, sharing intimate photograph or film with intent to cause alarm, distress or humiliation or for purpose of obtaining sexual gratification”.
Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014
In section 116 of the Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014 (information about guests at hotels believed to be used for child sexual exploitation), in subsection (8)(c), in the entry that relates to exposure and voyeurism offences in the Sexual Offences Act 2003—
after “exposure” insert “, sending etc photograph or film of genitals, sharing intimate photograph or film with intent to cause alarm, distress or humiliation or for purpose of obtaining sexual gratification”.
In Schedule 4 to the Modern Slavery Act 2015 (offences to which defence in section 45 does not apply), in paragraph 33 (offences under Sexual Offences Act 2003), after the entry for section 66 insert—
In Part 2 of Schedule 18 to the Sentencing Act 2020 (specified sexual offences for purposes of section 306), in paragraph 38 (offences under Sexual Offences Act 2003), after sub-paragraph (ax) insert—
Overseas Operations (Service Personnel and Veterans) Act 2021
In Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Overseas Operations (Service Personnel and Veterans) Act 2021 (“excluded offences” for the purposes of section 6 of that Act), omit paragraph 11.
In the Criminal Justice (Electronic Commerce) (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2021, omit regulation 8 (amendment of the Criminal Justice and Courts Act 2015).
If E is a subsidiary undertaking and there is an entity which is a fellow subsidiary undertaking in relation to E, the provisional notice of contravention may be given—
If a provisional notice of contravention is given jointly as mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(b), (3)(b), (4)(b) or (5)(b), section 130(8) is to be read, in its application for the purposes of this paragraph, as if it included a reference to representations about whether joint and several liability would be appropriate.
But before giving a penalty notice to a parent entity, or giving a confirmation decision to a parent entity which was not previously given a provisional notice of contravention relating to the same matter, OFCOM must give that entity an opportunity to make representations to OFCOM about—
P makes representations (under section 130(8) as applied by paragraph 1(6), or under sub-paragraph (3)) which satisfy OFCOM that P does not meet any condition in section 1162(2)(b), (c) or (d) or (4) of the Companies Act in relation to E.
If a relevant decision or notice is given to entities jointly as mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(b), those entities are jointly and severally liable to comply with the requirements, or (as the case may be) pay the penalty, imposed by the decision or notice.
before giving a penalty notice to a subsidiary entity, or giving a confirmation decision to a subsidiary entity which was not previously given a provisional notice of contravention relating to the same matter, OFCOM must give that entity an opportunity to make representations to OFCOM about—
a relevant decision or notice may be given to a subsidiary entity only if that entity’s acts or omissions contributed to the failure in respect of which the decision or notice is given.
If a relevant decision or notice is given to entities jointly as mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(b), those entities are jointly and severally liable to comply with the requirements, or (as the case may be) pay the penalty, imposed by the decision or notice.
before giving a penalty notice to a fellow subsidiary entity, or giving a confirmation decision to a fellow subsidiary entity which was not previously given a provisional notice of contravention relating to the same matter, OFCOM must give that entity an opportunity to make representations to OFCOM about—
a relevant decision or notice may be given to a fellow subsidiary entity only if that entity’s acts or omissions contributed to the failure in respect of which the decision or notice is given.
If a relevant decision or notice is given to entities jointly as mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(b), those entities are jointly and severally liable to comply with the requirements, or (as the case may be) pay the penalty, imposed by the decision or notice.
But before giving a penalty notice to an individual, or giving a confirmation decision to an individual who was not previously given a provisional notice of contravention relating to the same matter, OFCOM must give that individual an opportunity to make representations to OFCOM about—
An individual or individuals are to be taken to “control” E if that individual or those individuals would, if they were an undertaking, be a parent undertaking in relation to E within the meaning of section 1162 of the Companies Act by reason of meeting the condition in subsection (2)(a), (b), (c) or (d) or (4)(a) of that section.
P makes representations (under section 130(8) as applied by paragraph 1(6), or under sub-paragraph (3)) which satisfy OFCOM that P does not control E by reason of any condition in section 1162(2)(b), (c) or (d) or (4) of the Companies Act.
If a relevant decision or notice is given jointly to E and to an individual or individuals as mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(b), that entity and that individual or those individuals are jointly and severally liable to comply with the requirements, or (as the case may be) pay the penalty, imposed by the decision or notice.
OFCOM’s guidance under section 151 must include information about the factors that OFCOM would consider it appropriate to take into account when considering whether to give a decision or notice jointly as mentioned in this Schedule.
is a video-sharing platform service by reason of the conditions in section 368S(1) and (2) of the Communications Act being met in relation to the service as a whole, and
is a video-sharing platform service by reason of the conditions in section 368S(1)(a) and (2) of the Communications Act being met in relation to that dissociable section, and
In sub-paragraph (1), any reference to a service provided before this Schedule comes into force includes a reference to a service provided in breach of the requirement in section 368V of the Communications Act.
OFCOM’s powers under Schedule 12 to this Act (powers of entry, inspection and audit) do not apply during the transitional period in relation to the pre-existing Part 4B service.
In sub-paragraph (2) the reference to this Act does not include a reference to Part 6 (fees); for the application of Part 6, see Part 3 of this Schedule.
The duties set out in section 81 of this Act do not apply during the transitional period in relation to any regulated provider pornographic content published or displayed on a pre-existing Part 4B service.
In the case of a regulated user-to-user service which includes a pre-existing Part 4B service within the definition in paragraph (b) of paragraph 1(1), nothing in sub-paragraph (1) is to be taken to prevent the duties set out in section 81 from applying during the transitional period in relation to any regulated provider pornographic content published or displayed on any other part of the service.
In this paragraph “regulated provider pornographic content” and “published or displayed” have the same meaning as in Part 5 of this Act (see section 79).
During the transitional period, Part 4B of the Communications Act applies in relation to a pre-existing Part 4B service within the definition in paragraph (b) of paragraph 1(1).
Sub-paragraph (3), and paragraphs 6 to 8, apply in relation to a regulated user-to-user service which includes a pre-existing Part 4B service within the definition in paragraph (b) of paragraph 1(1).
During the transitional period, this Act applies in relation to the regulated user-to-user service with the modifications set out in paragraph 6, 7, or 8 (whichever applies).
In sub-paragraph (3) the reference to this Act does not include a reference to Part 6 (fees); for the application of Part 6, see Part 3 of this Schedule.
This paragraph applies in relation to a regulated user-to-user service described in paragraph 5(2) if the service would still be a regulated user-to-user service even if the Part 4B part were to be assumed not to be part of the service.
any duty or requirement mentioned in paragraph 3(4) which applies in relation to the regulated service is to be treated as applying only in relation to the rest of the service;
This paragraph applies in relation to a regulated user-to-user service described in paragraph 5(2) if the service would be a regulated search service if the Part 4B part were to be assumed not to be part of the service.
During the transitional period, no duty or requirement mentioned in paragraph 3(4) applies in relation to the Part 4B part of the service (but that is not to be taken to prevent any other duty or requirement under this Act from applying in relation to the search engine of the service during the transitional period).
During the transitional period, the powers mentioned in paragraph 3(5) are to be treated as applying only in relation to the search engine of the service.
This paragraph applies in relation to a regulated user-to-user service described in paragraph 5(2) if the service does not fall within paragraph 6 or 7.
The duties, requirements and powers mentioned in paragraph 3(4) and (5) do not apply in relation to the regulated service during the transitional period.
modifications of Parts 1 and 2 of that Schedule in connection with certain assessments of services which include a pre-existing Part 4B service within the definition in paragraph (b) of paragraph 1(1).
Operation of section 368U of the Communications Act
During the transitional period, section 368U of the Communications Act has effect as a requirement to establish and maintain an up to date list of persons providing a video-sharing platform service to which Part 4B applies.
Video-sharing platform services which start up, or start up again, during the transitional period
Part 4B of the Communications Act does not apply in relation to a video-sharing platform service which is first provided on or after the date when this Schedule comes into force.
This Part makes provision about the application of the following provisions of this Act in relation to a person who is the provider of a relevant regulated service—
Sub-paragraph (2) applies in relation to a person who is the provider of a relevant regulated service, whether or not the person is the provider of any other regulated service.
Section 83, which makes provision about the notification of OFCOM in relation to a charging year, applies to the provider in relation to every charging year, regardless of whether any part, or all, of a charging year falls within the transitional period.
Application of section 84: transitional charging year
If a person who is the provider of a relevant regulated service is an exempt provider, section 84 and Schedule 10 do not apply in relation to the provider in respect of a transitional charging year (see paragraph 23).
Sub-paragraph (2) applies in relation to a person who is the provider of a relevant regulated service, whether or not the person is the provider of any other regulated service.
Section 84 and Schedule 10 apply without modification in relation to the provider in respect of a non-transitional charging year (even if the notification date in relation to such a charging year fell within the transitional period).
For the purposes of this Part, OFCOM may produce a statement giving information about the circumstances in which amounts do, or do not, count as being wholly referable to a relevant Part 4B service.
The repeal of section 368T does not affect OFCOM’s powers to act after the repeal time as the appropriate regulatory authority under Part 4B of the Communications Act as it has effect by virtue of this Part of this Schedule.
The repeal of sections 368Y(3)(b) and 368Z10 (demands for information) does not affect the application of those provisions after the repeal time in a case in which—
The repeal of sections 368W and 368Z4 (enforcement of section 368V) does not affect the application of those sections after the repeal time in a case in which OFCOM—
The repeal of sections 368Z2 and 368Z4 (enforcement of sections 368Y and 368Z1(6) and (7)) does not affect the application of those sections after the repeal time in a case in which OFCOM—
The repeal of sections 368Z3 and 368Z4 (enforcement of sections 368Z1(1) and (2)) does not affect the application of those sections after the repeal time in a case in which OFCOM—
The repeal of section 368Z5 (suspension or restriction of service for contraventions or failures) does not affect the application of that section after the repeal time in a case in which OFCOM—
OFCOM are satisfied that a person failed to comply with a requirement imposed after that time under section 368Z10 as it has effect in a case mentioned in paragraph 30(1).
The repeal of sections 368Z7 (directions under sections 368Z5 and 368Z6) and 368Z8 (offence relating to such directions) does not affect the application of those sections after the repeal time in connection with a direction given under section 368Z5 as it has effect by virtue of this paragraph.